EVALUASI

Chapter 22--Development and Birth

Chapter 22--Development and Birth

1. _________ occurs when sperm and egg interact. (p. 416) 1. Conjugation
2. Fertilization
3. Cleavage
4. Development
5. Differentiation
 2. ______ is cell division without growth. (p. 416) 1. Conjugation
2. Fertilization
3. Cleavage
4. Development
5. Differentiation
 3. In the lancelet, the zygote undergoes cleavage to the point of forming a hollow ball called a ________. (p. 416) 1. morula
2. blastula
3. gastrula
4. coelom
 4. The ______ is the primitive digestive tract or gut. (p. 417) 1. ectoderm
2. endoderm
3. mesoderm
4. blastocoel
5. archenteron
5. The third layer to form in gastrulation in the lancelet is the _____________. (p. 417) 1. ectoderm
2. endoderm
3. mesoderm
4. blastocoel
5. archenteron
 6. The development of all organs can be traced to one of the germ layers. (p. 417) 1. True
2. False
 7. Ectoderm cells will become the skeletal and muscular systems. (p. 417) 1. True
2. False
 8. The nervous system develops from the ____________. (p. 417) 1. ectoderm
2. mesoderm
3. endoderm
4. portions of all of the above
5. coelom
 9. The chick has solved the problem of reproduction on land by providing a great deal of _______. (p. 418) 1. additional cell cleavage
2. yolk within a pool of fluid
3. yolk within a hard shell
4. water inside the coelom to substitute for the dry environment
5. water in its bloodstream
10. The anterior end of the neural tube develops into the _________. (p. 419) 1. notochord
2. heart
3. brain
4. gut
5. gonads
 11. ______ give(s) rise to segmental muscles of the body and also produce(s) the vertebral bones. (p. 419) 1. The notochord
2. The archenteron
3. The neural tube
4. Somites
5. The coelom
 12. The coelom is completely lined by ___________. (p. 417) 1. ectoderm
2. mesoderm
3. endoderm
4. somites
5. optic vesicles
 13. All chordates have an embryo with _________. (p. 417) 1. a dorsal hollow nerve cord
2. a notochord
3. a coelom lined with mesoderm
4. all of the above
 14. Development requires __________. (p. 420) 1. cleavage and fusion
2. differentiation and morphogenesis
3. ooplasmic fusion and segregation
4. neurulation and induction
15. Differentiation occurs when cells become specialized in structure and function. (p. 420) 1. True
2. False
 16. Differentiation and morphogenesis account for specialization of tissues and formation of organs and determine the shape of the organism. (p. 420) 1. True
2. False
 17. The cytoplasm of a frog's egg is uniform. (p. 420) 1. True
2. False
 18. A cell does NOT need the gray crescent to develop into a tadpole. (p. 420) 1. True
2. False
 19. The formation of the germ layers is probably influenced by environmental factors. (p. 420) 1. True
2. False
 20. _________ is the ability of one tissue to influence the development of another. (p. 421) 1. Cleavage
2. Homeotic gene pattern formation
3. Ooplasmic segregation
4. Neurulation
5. Induction
21. The presumptive notochord tissue can cause the tissue under the belly ectoderm to develop into a neural plate. (p. 421) 1. True
2. False
 22. The first sign of the nervous system is the __________. (p. 419) 1. neural tube
2. neural groove
3. neural plate
4. protocerebrum
 23. It is believed that induction stops after neural tube formation. (p. 421) 1. True
2. False
 24. The homeodomain proteins stay in the nucleus and regulate transcription of other genes during development. (p. 422) 1. True
2. False
 25. _____________ genes are involved in pattern formation and many contain the same sequence of nucleic acids across a wide range of species. (p. 422) 1. Mutation
2. Extraembryonic
3. Homeotic
4. Recessive
5. Induced
 26. In the chick, the ______ lies next to the shell and carries on gas exchange. (p. 423) 1. amnion
2. chorion
3. allantois
4. placenta
 27. The ______ collect(s) nitrogenous waste in the chick. (p. 423) 1. amnion
2. chorion
3. extraembryonic membranes
4. yolk sac
5. allantois
 28. The presence of extraembryonic membranes in reptiles made development on land possible. (p. 423) 1. True
2. False
 29. Extraembryonic membranes are found during the development of humans but not during the development of chicks. (p. 423) 1. True
2. False
 30. Embryonic development includes the first __________ of development in humans. (p. 424) 1. week
2. two weeks
3. month
4. two months
5. nine months
 31. In humans, cleavage begins in the _________. (p. 424) 1. ovary
2. oviduct
3. uterus
4. vagina
5. early stages of childbirth
 32. The trophoblast gives rise to the __________. (p. 424) 1. amnion
2. chorion
3. allantois
4. placenta
 33. In the third week, the embryo begins implanting in the wall of the uterus. (p. 425) 1. True
2. False
 34. ___________ is the hormone that is the basis for the pregnancy test. (p. 424) 1. Estrogen
2. Human chorionic gonadotropic hormone (HCG)
3. Progesterone
4. Prostaglandin
5. Prolactin
 35. Gastrulation occurs during the second week of embryonic development in humans. (p. 425) 1. True
2. False
 36. All embryonic chordates have pharyngeal arches but they only develop into functioning gills in fish and in amphibian larvae. (p. 425) 1. True
2. False
 37. In humans, the first pair of pharyngeal pouches becomes _________. (p. 426) 1. gills
2. arms
3. lungs
4. eustachian tubes
5. tonsils
 38. In humans, the second through fourth pairs of pharyngeal pouches become _________. (p. 426) 1. tonsils
2. the thymus gland
3. parathyroid glands
4. all of the above
 39. The ______ system is the first organ system to be visually evident in human embryonic development. (p. 425) 1. digestive
2. circulatory
3. nervous
4. musculoskeletal
5. reproductive
 40. Development of the heart begins in the ______ week of human embryonic development. (p. 426) 1. first
2. third
3. fifth
4. ninth
5. twelfth
 41. The blood vessels of the allantois become the __________ . (p. 426) 1. heart
2. umbilical cord
3. dorsal aorta and vena cava
4. placenta
5. retina
 42. During the fourth and fifth months, human features--arms and legs, ears, eyes and nose--begin to appear. (p. 430) 1. True
2. False
 43. Three months after the embryo is fully implanted, the placenta begins to form. (p. 427) 1. True
2. False
 44. The placenta produces __________. (p. 427) 1. prolactin
2. oxytocin
3. estrogen and progesterone
4. gonadotropic releasing hormone (GnRH)
5. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
 45. Chorionic villus sampling ___________. (p. 428-429) 1. samples the mother's part of the placenta to detect evidence of malfunction
2. samples the baby's part of the placenta to test for genetic defects
3. retrieves preovulated eggs for in vitro fertilization
4. is used to detect if there is a pregnancy
5. samples the amniotic fluid to detect genetic defects in fetal cells grown in culture
 46. Amniocentesis ___________. (p. 428-429) 1. samples the mother's part of the placenta to detect evidence of malfunction
2. samples the baby's part of the placenta to test for genetic defects
3. retrieves preovulated eggs for in vitro fertilization
4. is used to detect if there is a pregnancy
5. samples the amniotic fluid to detect genetic defects in fetal cells grown in culture
 47. Eggs are screened for genetic defects by testing the nucleus of the candidate egg to be fertilized. (p. 428-429) 1. True
2. False
 48. The placenta has a fetal side and a maternal side.(p. 427) 1. True
2. False
 49. Umbilical arteries carry ______ blood to the placenta. (p. 427-429) 1. oxygenated
2. deoxygenated
3. mixed maternal and fetal
4. no
 50. The fetus receives its oxygen and nutrients from the mother's blood by way of _________. (p. 427-429) 1. extended respiratory and digestive tubes from the mother's organ systems
2. mixing fetal and maternal blood in the placenta
3. the placenta without blood exchange
4. storage of nutrients in yolk and diffusion of oxygen across the amniotic fluid
 51. Parturition (labor and expulsion of the fetus) is considered to have ______ stage(s). (p. 432-433) 1. one
2. two
3. three
4. four
5. five
 52. Hormones that cause the uterus to contract are ___________. (p. 432-433) 1. estrogen and progesterone
2. oxytocin and prostaglandins
3. prolactin and progesterone
4. FSH and LH
 53. True or false. The placenta is delivered during the second stage of labor. (p. 433) 1. True
2. False
 54. ______ is the study of aging. (p. 434) 1. Gerontology
2. Pediatrics
3. Demography
4. Episiotomy
5. Proctology
 55. In a menopausal woman, there is plenty of FSH in the bloodstream, but the ovaries do NOT respond. (p. 434) 1. True
2. False
 56. The cause(s) of aging is/are ____________. (p. 434-435) 1. genetic since cell divisions are limited and vary by species and some people with long-lived parents live longer themselves
2. a whole body process since tissues decline in function
3. due to extrinsic factors such as lack of calcium, a good diet, or exercise
4. the accumulation of free radicals or unstable molecules
5. all of the above
Return to Study Questions Chapter 21--Reproductive System

Chapter 21--Reproductive System

1. The testes lie within the ___________. (p. 392) 1. urinary bladder
2. erectile tissue
3. scrotum
4. prostate gland
5. ejaculatory duct
 2. True or false. The testes first begin to develop in the abdominal cavity. (p. 392) 1. True
2. False
 3. True or false. Normal sperm production is highest at regular body temperature. (p. 393) 1. True
2. False
 4. Sperm mature within the epididymis. (p. 393) 1. True
2. False
 5. An erection of the penis is caused by __________. (p. 393) 1. semen pressure from the testes and vas deferens
2. muscle flexion of the penile muscles
3. increased secretions of lymph into the spongy tissue
4. an increase in arterial blood flow to the penis
5. ejaculatory muscles
 6. If the penis fails to become erect, the condition is called __________. (p. 393) 1. a hernia
2. infertility
3. impotency
4. cryptorchidism
5. orgasm
 7. The vas deferens ____________. (p. 393) 1. empties into the urinary bladder
2. bypasses the urethra to fuse with the ureters
3. joins to become the ejaculatory duct that enters the urethra
4. fuses with the prostate gland which bathes the sperm in milky fluid
5. extends all the way to the tip of the penis
 8. _________ type(s) of accessory gland(s) add(s) secretions to seminal fluid. (p. 392-393) 1. one
2. two
3. three
4. four
5. five
 9. Seminal fluid is composed of ____________. (p. 393) 1. sperm
2. prostate gland secretions
3. seminal vesicle secretions
4. bulbourethral gland secretions
5. all of the above
 10. Following ejaculation, a male may typically experience a period of time, called ________, during which stimulation does not bring about an erection. (p. 393) 1. orgasm
2. post-ejaculatory trauma syndrome
3. a refractory period
4. spermatogenesis time
5. the plateau phase
 11. Each lobule of a testis contains one to three coiled ___________. (p. 394) 1. sperm
2. prostate glands
3. seminal vesicles
4. bulbourethral glands
5. seminiferous tubules
 12. In the testes are __________ which support, nourish, and regulate the spermatogenic cells of the seminiferous tubules. (p. 394) 1. sperm
2. prostate glands
3. seminal vesicles
4. bulbourethral glands
5. sustentacular (Sertoli) cells
 13. True or false. Spermatogenesis occurs in the seminiferous tubules. (p. 394) 1. True
2. False
 14. True or false. The sperm contributes cytoplasm and organelles to the zygote. (p. 395) 1. True
2. False
 15. The sperm's nucleus is in the _________. (p. 395) 1. head
2. middle piece
3. tail
4. whole sperm, distributed evenly
 16. The acrosome contains ___________. (p. 395) 1. chromosomes
2. enzymes allowing the sperm to penetrate the egg
3. mitochondria wrapped around microtubules to provide movement
4. interstitial cell-stimulating hormone
5. testosterone
 17. __________ differentiate into sperm. (p. 395) 1. interstitial cells
2. acrosomes
3. polar bodies
4. seminal vesicles
5. spermatids
 18. The middle piece and the tail of a sperm ___________. (p. 395) 1. carry the food necessary to nourish the head of the sperm
2. carry the enzymes necessary to penetrate the egg's outer layers
3. contain microtubules in the 9 + 2 pattern of cilia and flagella
4. do all of the above
 19. The middle piece of a sperm contains __________. (p. 395) 1. food necessary to nourish the head of the sperm
2. enzymes necessary to penetrate the egg's outer layers
3. mitochondria to provide energy for movement
4. all of the above
 20. The interstitial cells produce __________. (p. 394-395) 1. GnRH or gonadotropic-releasing hormone
2. estrogens
3. testosterone
4. all of the above
 21. True or false. The hypothalamus has ultimate control of the testes' sexual functions. (p. 395) 1. True
2. False
 22. Gonadotropic hormones are released by the ___________. (p. 395) 1. hypothalamus
2. anterior pituitary
3. interstitial cells
4. ovaries
5. thyroid
 23. There are two gonadotropic hormones: ______________. (p. 395) 1. testosterone and estrogen
2. FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) and LH (luteinizing hormone)
3. ICSH (interstitial cell-stimulating hormone) and ECSH (extrastitial cell-stimulating hormone)
4. GnRH and anti-GnRH
 24. FSH and LH occur ____________. (p. 395-399) 1. only in females
2. only in males
3. in both males and females
4. only in males, and females after menopause
 25. True or false. FSH promotes production of testosterone. (p. 395) 1. True
2. False
 26. Testosterone ______________. (p. 395) 1. stimulates growth of male genitalia
2. is needed for sperm maturation
3. is needed for development of secondary sex characteristics
4. includes all of the above characteristics
 27. The ovaries lie in the __________ cavity. (p. 396) 1. upper abdominal
2. lower thoracic
3. upper pelvic
4. external scrotal
 28. True or false. The oviducts totally enclose the ovaries. (p. 396-397) 1. True
2. False
 29. The external genitals of the female are known collectively as the __________. (p. 397) 1. mons pubis
2. labia
3. vagina
4. vulva
5. ectometrium
 30. True or false. The clitoris can be especially sensitive for initiating sexual sensations. (p. 397) 1. True
2. False
 31. True or false. Each follicle contains an immature egg. (p. 398) 1. True
2. False
 32. True or false. A human female is born with as many as two million follicles. (p. 398) 1. True
2. False
 33. As the follicle undergoes maturation, it develops from a primary follicle to a secondary follicle to a/an ______ follicle. (p. 398) 1. tertiary
2. oocyte
3. terminal
4. Graafian
 34. The rupturing of the follicle is referred to as __________. (p. 399) 1. Graafian termination
2. endometriosis
3. oogenesis
4. menstruation
5. ovulation
35. After the egg leaves the ovary, it goes to the ___________. (p. 397) 1. oviducts
2. uterus
3. vagina
4. vulva
 36. Once a follicle has lost its egg, it develops into a corpus luteum, which _________. (p. 399) 1. develops into the endometrium
2. triggers menstruation
3. develops more eggs
4. is a hormone-secreting structure
 37. True or false. The follicle and the corpus luteum secrete the female sex hormones. (p. 399) 1. True
2. False
 38. Fertilization normally occurs in the __________. (p. 396) 1. uterus
2. vagina
3. ovary follicle
4. cervix
5. oviduct
39. The inner lining of the uterus is called the ___________. (p. 397) 1. endometrium
2. vagina
3. oviduct
4. cervix
5. fimbriae
 40. True or false. The endometrium participates in the formation of the placenta. (p. 397) 1. True
2. False
 41. The hypothalamus secretes _________. (p. 399) 1. FSH
2. LH
3. gonadotropic-releasing hormone (GnRH)
4. all of the above
 42. ___________ is mainly responsible for secondary sex characteristics and egg maturation. (p. 399-403) 1. Estrogen
2. Progesterone
3. Testosterone
4. Prolactin
5. Oxytocin
 43. The end of the __________ is marked by ovulation. (p. 401) 1. fertile phase
2. menstruation
3. proliferative phase
4. secretory phase
5. intercourse
 44. True or false. During the last half of the ovarian cycle, the corpus luteum secretes progesterone. (p. 401) 1. True
2. False
 45. True or false. As the luteal phase ends, menstruation occurs. (p. 401) 1. True
2. False
 46. True or false. During days 1-5 of the uterine cycle, there is a high level of female sex hormones in the body. (p. 401) 1. True
2. False
 47. During days 6-13 of the uterine cycle, increased ______ production causes the endometrium to thicken and become vascular and glandular. (p. 401) 1. estrogen
2. progesterone
3. testosterone
4. prolactin
5. oxytocin
 48. True or false. During days 15-28 of the uterine cycle, increased production of progesterone causes the endometrium to double in thickness. (p. 401) 1. True
2. False
 49. During the _________ phase of the uterine cycle, the endometrium is prepared to receive the developing embryo. (p. 401) 1. ovulation
2. menstrual
3. proliferative
4. secretory
50. True or false. HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) maintains the corpus luteum until the placenta begins its own production of progesterone and estrogen. (p. 401) 1. True
2. False
 51. True or false. The placenta originates only from the maternal endometrium. (p. 397) 1.True
2. False
 52. True or false. Maternal and fetal blood freely mix in the placenta. (p. 401) 1. True
2. False
 53. The placenta produces _________. (p. 401) 1. HCG
2. progesterone
3. estrogen
4. all of the above
 54. ______ is the period in a woman's life during which the ovarian and uterine cycles cease. (p. 403) 1. Menopause
2. Menstruation
3. Ovulation
4. Puberty
 55. True or false. A vasectomy has an effectiveness rate of almost 100%. (p. 404) 1. True
2. False
 56. True or false. The Depo-provera method of birth control consists of eight injections of an estrogen-like steroid per year. (p. 404) 1. True
2. False
 57. An IUD is inserted into the ___________. (p. 404) 1. ovaries
2. vagina
3. oviducts
4. uterus
5. breast tissue
 58. True or false. After menopause the anterior pituitary no longer produces FSH and LH. (p. 403) 1. True
2. False
 59. The __________ fits over the cervix. (p. 404) 1. male condom
2. intrauterine device
3. douche
4. diaphragm
5. tubal ligation
 60. True or false. Analogues of gonadotropic-releasing hormones have been used to prevent the hypothalamus from stimulating the anterior pituitary. (p. 404-405) 1. True
2. False
 61. True or false. Inhibin has been used to prevent the anterior pituitary from producing FSH. (p. 405) 1. True
2. False
 62. True or false. Testosterone can be used to inhibit spermatogenesis. (p. 405) 1. True
2. False
 63. True or false. "Morning-after" pills only work to prevent ovulation. (p. 406) 1. True
2. False
 64. RU-486 (mifepristone) blocks the _________ receptors in the uterine lining. (p. 406) 1. estrogen
2. oxytocin
3. prolactin
4. progesterone
5. testosterone
 65. True or false. RU-486, taken in conjunction with a prostaglandin, induces uterine contractions. (p. 406) 1. True
2. False
 66. When a couple cannot have any children they are termed _______. (p. 406) 1. infertile
2. sterile
3. impotent
4. incontinent
5. non-conceptive
 67. True or false. The two major causes of infertility in females are blocked oviducts and failure to ovulate due to low body weight. (p. 406) 1. True
2. False
 68. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) may cause ____________. (p. 406) 1. endometriosis
2. blocked oviducts
3. multiple pregnancies
4. overstimulation
5. syphilis
 69. True or false. Treatment of infertility with HCG and gonadotropins can sometimes result in multiple pregnancies. (p. 406) 1. True
2. False
 70. True or false. The most frequent cause(s) of infertility in males is low sperm count and/or a large proportion of abnormal sperm. (p. 406) 1. True
2. False
 71. True or false. It is possible for a baby to have five parents. (p. 407) 1. True
2. False
 72. True or false. With gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT), only the sperm are placed into the oviducts. (p. 407) 1. True
2. False
 73. A/An _________ mother is a woman who has a baby for someone else. (p. 407) 1. adoptive
2. artificial
3. surrogate
4. donor
 74. Viral sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) include ___________. (p. 408-409) 1. AIDS.
2. genital herpes.
3. genital warts.
4. all of the above.
 75. True or false. Viral diseases are easy to treat with standard antibiotics. (p. 408) 1. True
2. False
 76. The stages of an HIV infection include __________. (p. 408-409) 1. asymptomatic carrier
2. pre-AIDS
3. full-blown AIDS
4. all of the above
5. opportunistic infection
 77. Opportunistic infection(s) that occur(s) primarily in AIDS patients with weakened immune systems include(s):___________. (p. 409) 1. Kaposi's sarcoma and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
2. genital herpes types 1 and 2
3. gonorrhea and syphilis
4. pelvic inflammatory disease
5. all of the above
 78. AIDS treatments and experimental treatments include _____________. (p. 410) 1. proteinase inhibitors that block the action of another viral enzyme called proteinase.
2. nucleotide analogs such as AZT that reverse transcriptase selects instead of a normal nucleotide
3. vaccines made from weakened viruses
4. vaccines made from virus segments
5. all of the above
 79. True or false. Due to the upsurge in AIDS cases, genital herpes is has become a fairly rare STD today. (p. 410) 1. True
2. False
 80. Genital warts are caused ____________. (p. 411) 1. as a surface infection by the HIV retrovirus
2. by the human papillomaviruses
3. by Neisseria gonorrhoeae
4. by Chlamydia trachomatis
5. by Treponema pallidum
 81. Gonorrhea is caused _____________. (p. 411) 1. as a surface infection by the HIV retrovirus
2. by the human papillomaviruses
3. by Neisseria gonorrhoeae
4. by Chlamydia trachomatis
5. by Treponema pallidum
 82. The most common cause of nongonococcal urethritis (NGU) is ___________. (p. 412) 1. a surface infection by the HIV retrovirus
2. human papillomaviruses
3. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
4. Chlamydia trachomatis
5. Treponema pallidum
 83. A newborn exposed to syphilitic bacteria during delivery may suffer from ___________. (p. 412) 1. inflammation of the eyes or pneumonia.
2. herpes complex
3. Candida albicans fungus infection
4. blindness or numerous anatomical malformations
 84. Stages of syphilis are _____________. (p. 412) 1. infectious and noninfectious stages
2. internal and external stages
3. primary, secondary, and tertiary stages
4. pre-syphilis and full-blown syphilis
Return to Study Questions Chapter 20--Endocrine System

Chapter 20--Endocrine System

1. Along with the nervous system, the ______ system coordinates the various activities of body parts. (p. 368) 1. digestive
2. endocrine
3. circulatory
4. respiratory
5. excretory
 2. ______ are chemical messengers that are produced in one body region but affect a different body region. (p. 368) 1. Enzymes
2. Endocrines
3. Neurotransmitters
4. Nucleic acids
5. Hormones
 3. True or false. The endocrine system is quicker than the nervous system. (p. 368) True
False
 4. True or false. Certain cells respond to one hormone and not to another, depending on their receptors. (p. 368) True
False
 5. True or false. Endocrine glands secrete hormones into the bloodstream for transport to target organs. (p. 368) True
False
 6. Hormones are substances that fall into two basic categories:____________. (p. 368) 1. stimulator hormones and receptor hormones
2. proteins and sugars
3. male hormones and female hormones
4. peptide hormones and steroid hormones
 7. True or false. Peptide hormones are produced by the adrenal glands, the ovaries, and the testes. (p. 368) True
False
 8. The receptors for peptide hormones are on the ______. (p. 369) 1. plasma membrane
2. nuclear envelope
3. DNA receptor complex
4. peptide chain
 9. True or false. Peptide hormones enter the cell. (p. 369) True
False
 10. True or false. Steroid hormones do NOT bind to plasma membrane receptors. (p. 368) True
False
 11. Steroid hormones lead to the ______ . (p. 368) 1. destruction of normal DNA
2. replication of hormones by the cell DNA
3. synthesis of new enzymes
4. alteration of the Krebs cycle
12. True or false. The hypothalamus is located beneath the thalamus in the brain. (p. 371) True
False
 13. The hypothalamus regulates ___________. (p. 371) 1. heart rate
2. body temperature
3. water balance
4. glandular secretions
5. all of the above
 14. True or false. The pituitary gland is divided into two portions: the posterior pituitary and the anterior pituitary. (p. 371) True
False
 15. The posterior pituitary stores and secretes _________. (p. 371) 1. ADH and oxytocin
2. growth hormone and gonadotropin releasing hormone
3. estrogen and testosterone
4. aldosterone and cortisone
 16. True or false. ADH promotes the expulsion of water from the collecting duct, a portion of the nephron. (p. 371) True
False
 17. The function(s) of oxytocin is/are to ______________. (p. 371) 1. cause the uterus to contract
2. induce labor
3. stimulate the release of milk from the mother's mammary glands when her baby is nursing.
4. all of the above
 18. Hypothalamic releasing and release-inhibiting hormones are transported from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary by way of __________. (p. 372) 1. the general bloodstream
2. a portal system of blood vessels directly connecting the two organs
3. direct contact between the two organs
4. a cascade of release-inhibit-release-etc. interactions
 19. Hormones produced by the anterior pituitary that have a direct effect on the body, rather than trigger another gland, are __________. (pp. 372-373) 1. GH, PRL, and MSH
2. TSH, ACTH, and gonadotropic hormones
3. testosterone and estrogen
4. FH, LSH and progesterone
 20. Which hormone dramatically affects physical appearance? (p. 373) 1. gonadotropin-releasing hormone
2. growth
3. steroid
4. male and female
 21. GH promotes __________. (pp. 372-373) 1. cell division
2. protein synthesis
3. bone growth
4. all of the above
 22. True or false. If the production of GH increases in an adult after full height has been attained, only certain bones respond. (p. 373) True
False
 23. True or false. Prolactin is produced in quantity throughout every person's life. (p. 373) True
False
 24. In humans, MSH (melanocyte-stimulating hormone) ___________. (p. 373) 1. regulates primary skin color
2. causes the thyroid to produce thyroxin
3. governs the rate of tanning
4. concentration is very low
 25. An overproduction of GH in adults causes a condition called ______. (p. 373) 1. hyperthyroidism
2. acromegaly
3. a pituitary giant
 26. True or false. Many animals do not use chemical messengers to regulate the activities of their cells. (p. 374) True
False
 27. In insects and many other arthropods, ________ is a "molt-and-maturation" hormone. (p. 374) 1. brain hormone
2. ecdysone
3. juvenile hormone
4. M&M hormone
 28. The parathyroid glands are located __________ . (p. 376) 1. below the thyroid, hence the name "para"
2. above the thyroid, hence the name "para"
3. imbedded in the posterior surface of the thyroid gland
4. distant from the thyroid but named because there are two and they resemble the thyroid glands
 29. True or false. The thyroid gland is attached to the trachea just above the larynx. (p. 375) True
False
 30. If ______ is lacking in the diet, the thyroid gland enlarges, producing a goiter. (p. 375) 1. thyroxin
2. iron
3. iodine
4. calcium
5. phosphorus
 31. Thyroxin does not have a specific target organ; instead, it stimulates most of the cells of the body to metabolize at a faster rate. (p. 375) True
False
 32. If the thyroid fails to develop properly from childhood, a condition called ______ results. (p. 375) 1. goiter
2. cretinism
3. acromegaly
4. pituitary dwarfism
5. myxedema
 33. Hypothyroidism in adults produces a condition called _________ . (p. 375) 1. goiter
2. cretinism
3. acromegaly
4. pituitary dwarfism
5. myxedema
 34. In addition to thyroxin, the thyroid gland produces ________. (p. 376) 1. TSH
2. ACTH
3. calcitonin
4. FSH
5. gonadotropin releasing hormone
 35. Calcitonin ____________. (p. 376) 1. regulates the calcium level in blood.
2. opposes the action of parathyroid hormone.
3. increases the buildup of bone
4. all of the above
 36. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) ___________. (p. 376) 1. stimulates the absorption of calcium from the digestive tract
2. stimulates the retention of calcium by the kidneys
3. stimulates the demineralization of bone
4. causes blood phosphate level to decrease
5. all of the above
 37. If insufficient PTH is produced, the blood calcium level drops, resulting in ______. (p. 376) 1. reduced growth in childhood or parathyroid dwarfism
2. tetany where the body shakes from continuous muscle contraction
3. osteoporosis
4. blood clotting
 38. True or false. In tetany, the body shakes from continuous muscle contraction. (p. 376) True
False
 39. Calcium plays an important role in __________. (p. 376) 1. nervous conduction
2. muscle contraction
3. blood clotting
4. all of the above
 40. The adrenal glands consist of _________. (p. 377) 1. the inner and outer layer of the kidney
2. the medulla and the cortex
3. lower adrenal and upper paradrenal sections
4. ACTH and BCTH sections
 41. True or false. The medulla and the cortex portions of the adrenal glands function together as a physiological unit. (p. 377) True
False
 42. The adrenal medulla secretes ______ under conditions of stress. (p. 377) 1. norepinephrine
2. epinephrine
3. both of the above
 43. The adrenal ______ secretes sex hormones. (p. 378) 1. medulla
2. cortex
3. accessory gland
 44. Cortisol is a ___________. (p. 378) 1. sex hormone
2. glucocorticoid
3. mineralocorticoid
 45. ACTH controls the secretion of ___________. (pp. 377-378) 1. cortisol
2. aldosterone
3. epinephrine
4. testosterone
 46. True or false. Aldosterone regulates the blood sodium and potassium levels. (p. 378) True
False
 47. The primary target organ of aldosterone is ___________. (p. 378) 1. the liver
2. the pancreas
3. the kidney
4. all of the above
 48. True or false. The heart produces a hormone that acts to increase aldosterone. (p. 378) True
False
 49. True or false. Oversecretion of adrenal male sex hormone can lead to masculinization in females. (p. 379) True
False
 50. Low levels of adrenal cortex hormones result in __________. (p. 379) 1. Addison disease
2. Cushing syndrome
3. diabetes
4. tetany
5. goiter
 51. A person with Addison disease ___________. (p. 379) 1. is unable to maintain blood glucose level
2. lacks ability to repair tissue
3. is more susceptible to stress
4. all of the above
 52. True or false. A person with Cushing syndrome has a tendency toward diabetes mellitus. (p. 379) True
False
 53. True or false. The pancreas has both exocrine and endocrine tissue. (p. 380) True
False
 54. There are ______ types of diabetes mellitus. (p. 380) 1. one
2. three
3. two
4. five
 55. True or false. The pancreatic endocrine tissues are called pancreatic islets. (p. 380) True
False
 56. The pancreatic islets produce __________. (p. 380) 1. insulin and glucagon
2. pancreatin
3. ACTH and aldosterone
4. pancreatic digestive enzymes
57. Insulin functions to __________. (p. 380) 1. promote the storage of nutrients
2. lower the blood glucose level by stimulating liver, fat and muscle cells to metabolize glucose
3. stimulate storage of glucose
4. all of the above
 58. True or false. Glucagon increases the action of insulin. (p. 380) True
False
 59. In __________ diabetes the pancreas is NOT producing insulin. (pp. 380-381) 1. type I
2. type II
3. type III
4. all forms of
 60. True or false. It is believed that type I diabetes is brought on by an environmental agent, probably a virus. (p. 380) True
False
 61. True or false. Type II diabetes usually occurs in people who are obese and inactive. (p. 381) True
False
 62. True or false. In type II diabetes, insulin is produced but the cells do NOT respond to it. (p. 381) True
False
 63. The ______ are the male sex hormones. (p. 381) 1. androgens
2. estrogens
3. aldosterones
4. insulins
5. pheromones
 64. Anabolic steroids are ______ forms of testosterone. (p. 381) 1. natural
2. synthetic
3. super-active
4. ineffective
 65. True or false. The thymus increases in size with aging. (p. 383) True
False
 66. The thymus aids the differentiation of ______ cells. (p. 383) 1. red blood
2. B
3. T
4. cancerous
 67. The ______ gland produces the hormone melatonin. (p. 383) 1. pituitary
2. pineal
3. thyroid
4. pancreatic
 68. True or false. Melatonin is involved with circadian rhythms. (p. 383) True
False
 69. The family of chemical messengers that causes the pain and discomfort of menstruation are ___________. (p. 383) 1. ADH
2. progesterones
3. prostaglandins
4. steroids
 70. _________ helps reduce pain because it inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandins. (p. 383) 1. Cyanide
2. Acetominophen
3. Serotonin
4. Aspirin
 71. Bombykol is a moth sex attractant and therefore a _______. (p. 384) 1. hormone
2. neurotransmitter
3. pheromone
4. steroid
Return to Study Questions Chapter 19--Senses

Chapter 19--Senses

1. Human receptors are classified into the types:________________. (p. 344) 1. sensory and motor receptors
2. photoreceptors, mechanoreceptors, chemoreceptors, proprioceptors, thermoreceptors, and pain receptors
3. Pacinian, Meissner, and Ruffini receptors
4. central, peripheral and sympathetic receptors
2. The eye contains ______. (p. 344) 1. mechanoreceptors
2. photoreceptors
3. chemoreceptors
4. proprioceptors
 3. The nose and taste buds contain ______. (p. 344) 1. mechanoreceptors
2. photoreceptors
3. chemoreceptors
4. proprioceptors
 4. The sense of knowing the position of the limbs is called ______. (p. 344) 1. proprioception
2. adaptation
3. reflex
4. isolation
 5. Golgi tendon organs play a role in ______. (p. 344) 1. sight
2. taste
3. stretch detection
4. adaptation
 6. The ear contains ______. (p. 344) 1. mechanoreceptors
2. photoreceptors
3. chemoreceptors
4. proprioceptors
 7. ______ occurs when a receptor becomes so accustomed to the stimulation that it stops generating impulses. (p. 346) 1. Olfaction
2. Accommodation
3. Adaptation
4. Amplification
 8. The special sense organs include (p. 345) 1. taste buds.
2. nose.
3. eye and ear.
4. all of the above.
 9. Skin contains receptors for ____________. (p. 346) 1. touch
2. pressure
3. pain
4. temperature.
5. all of the above
 10. Receptors for a particular sensation, such as touch, are spread evenly throughout the skin surface. (p. 346) True
False
 11. The sense of touch is due to ___________. (p. 346) 1. Pacinian corpuscles
2. Meisner corpuscles and Merkel disks
3. end-bulbs of Krause
4. Ruffini end organs
5. all of the above
 12. Pain receptors ______________. (p. 347) 1. do not exhibit adaptation
2. are free nerve endings
3. respond to chemicals released by tissues
4. directly generate nerve impulses that travel to the central nervous system
5. all of the above are true
 13. Taste and smell are called the ______ senses. (p. 348) 1. physical
2. variable
3. chemical
4. gradient
5. least critical
 14. Taste buds are located primarily on the ______. (p. 348) 1. upper palate
2. tongue
3. gums
4. turbinates of the nose
5. uvula
 15. Taste buds are pockets of cells that ____________. (p. 348) 1. lie flat on the surface of the tongue epithelium
2. extend through tongue epithelium and open at a taste pore
3. are called papillae
4. lack microvilli
5. all of the above
 16. Taste buds contain elongated taste cells that end in ______. (p. 348) 1. papillae
2. taste cells
3. bitter, sweet, sour or salty receptors
4. microvilli
5. pseudopodia
 17. Binding of a molecule to a receptor protein causes changes in the permeability of the receptor-cell membrane. (p. 348) 1. Electrochemical changes in these cells generate a nerve impulse.
2. Electrochemical changes in these cells cause an associated nerve fiber to generate nerve impulses.
3. Electrochemical changes in these cells are the perception of taste without any further nerve impulses involved.
4. Electromagnetic waves from food molecules cause these cells to generate a nerve impulse.
 18. The types of tastes are ____________. (p. 348) 1. hot, bland, sweet and sour
2. gradations between sweet and bitter
3. bitter, sour, sweet and salty
4. all actually types of smell
 19. The sense of smell is dependent on ______ cells. (p. 349) 1. optic
2. auditory
3. olfactory
4. proprioceptor
5. odiferous
 20. True or False. The stereochemical theory of smell suggests that different types of smell are related to the various shapes of molecules that bind to the receptor sites. (pp. 348-349) True
False
 21. True or False. Taste cells and olfactory cells work together to give the sense of taste and the sense of smell. (pp. 348-349) True
False
 22. The layers of the eyeball are ________. (p. 350) 1. the sclera
2. the choroid
3. the retina
4. all of the above
 23. The sclera __________. (p. 350) 1. refracts light rays
2. regulates light entrance
3. makes color vision possible
4. protects the eyeball
 24. The choroid __________. (p. 350) 1. refracts light rays
2. absorbs stray light rays
3. transmits impulses to the brain
4. makes color vision possible
 25. True or False. The ciliary body controls the lens shape for near and far vision. (p. 350) 1. True
2. False
 26. The iris __________. (p. 350) 1. regulates light entrance
2. refracts light rays
3. absorbs stray light rays
4. contains receptors for sight
 27. The posterior cavity of the eye behind the lens is filled with a viscous material called the _________ humor. (p. 350) 1. aqueous
2. vitreous
3. optic
4. sensa
 28. The anterior cavity between the cornea and the lens is filled with an alkaline, watery solution called the ______ humor. (p. 350) 1. aqueous
2. vitreous
3. optic
4. sensa
 29. When a person has ______, drainage ducts are blocked, and aqueous humor builds up. (p. 351) 1. cataracts
2. astigmatism
3. glaucoma
4. fovea centralis
 30. True or False. The buildup of aqueous humor due to glaucoma causes blindness by backing up and covering the lens of the eye. (p. 351) 1. True
2. False
 31. The sense receptor(s) for vision are the _____________. (p. 351) 1. retinocytes
2. rods and cones
3. optic nerves
4. optometric fovea
 32. The retina contains the ___________. (p. 351) 1. bipolar cells
2. ganglionic cells
3. rods and cones
4. all of the above
 33. The ganglionic cells have axons that become the ______ nerve. (p. 351) 1. optic
2. auditory
3. olfactory
4. proprioceptor
5. odiferous
 34. True or False. The bipolar cells contain light-sensitive pigments. (p. 351) True
False
 35. In sight, a nerve impulse travels from the ____________. (p. 351) 1. ganglionic cells to bipolar cells to rods and cones
2. rods and cones to bipolar cells to ganglionic cells
3. bipolar cells to rods and cones to ganglionic cells
4. rods and cones to ganglionic cells to bipolar cells
 36. When fibers of the ganglionic cells pass in front of the retina, the ______ is/are formed. (p. 351) 1. bipolar cells
2. fovea centralis
3. optic nerve
4. blind spot
 37. True or False. There are many more ganglionic cells than rods and cones. (p. 351) True
False
 38. True or False. There are no rods or cones where the optic nerve passes through the retina; therefore this is a blind spot, where vision is impossible. (p. 351) True
False
 39. The retina contains an oval, yellowish area with a depression in which there are only cones called the __________. (p. 351) 1. optic nerve
2. fovea centralis
3. pupil
4. choroid
 40. The fovea centralis is responsible for ___________. (p. 351) 1. glaucoma
2. accommodation
3. blindness
4. acute vision
 41. Only the __________ contains receptors for vision. (p. 351) 1. fovea centralis
2. blind spot
3. retina
4. ganglionic cell layer
 42. When we look at an object, an image of the object is focused on the ______. (p. 352) 1. optic nerve
2. fovea centralis
3. pupil
4. choroid
5. retina
 43. To view distant objects, the lens ____________. (p. 352) 1. flattens
2. rounds up
3. enlarges
4. constricts
 44. The shape of the lens is controlled by the ______ muscle. (p. 353) 1. optic
2. fovea centralis
3. pupillary
4. ciliary
5. musculolensmatic
 45. Close work may result in eyestrain because of ______ of the ciliary muscle. (p. 353) 1. transmission
2. contraction
3. astigmatism
4. focusing
 46. With aging, the lens loses some of its elasticity and is unable to _____________. (p. 353) 1. accommodate
2. relay nerve impulses
3. correct
4. remain transparent
 47. True or False. At present, surgery is the only viable treatment for cataracts of the eye. (p. 353) True
False
 48. True or False. The image formed on the retina is inverted. (p. 353) True
False
 49. Seeing with two eyes rather than just one results in ______ vision. (p. 353) 1. binocular
2. 20/20
3. color
4. stereoscopic
 50. Rods ___________. (p. 354) 1. detect color
2. are more numerous and therefore detect the slightest motion
3. do not contain rhodopsin found only in cones
4. all of the above are correct.
 51. Rhodopsin contains _________. (p. 354) 1. opsin and retinal
2. vitamin A and ATP
3. red, blue and green pigments
4. lightwaves
 52. Cones ____________. (p. 354) 1. are located primarily in the fovea centralis
2. contain the pigment rhodopsin
3. detect fine detail and color
4. both 1 and 3
 53. Color vision has been shown to depend on the three kinds of cones that contain pigments sensitive to _____________ light. (p. 354) 1. red, white and blue
2. yellow, green and red
3. violet, orange and pink
4. black, white and colored
5. blue, green, and red
54. Persons who can see close objects, but cannot see distant objects clearly, are said to ________________. (pp. 356-357) 1. be nearsighted
2. be farsighted
3. have astigmatism
4. have cataracts
 55. When the cornea or lens is uneven, and light rays cannot be evenly focused on the retina, causing a fuzzy image to form, the person is said to ______________. (p. 356) 1. be nearsighted
2. be farsighted
3. have astigmatism
4. have cataracts
 56. The ear functions for ___________. (p. 358) 1. equilibrium
2. hearing
3. both 1 and 2
 57. The receptors for hearing and equilibrium are located in the _________ ear. (p. 359) 1. inner
2. outer
3. middle
58. The ear has _______________. (p. 358) 1. four divisions: outer, medial, maximal and auditory
2. four divisions: males, incus, stapes and cochlear
3. three divisions: outer, middle and inner
4. two divisions: outer and inner
 59. The auditory canal in the ear is lined with fine hairs and sweat glands that secrete _________. (p. 358) 1. aqueous humor
2. earwax
3. cochlear fluid
4. eustachian fluid
 60. The bony wall found at the end of the middle ear has ____________. (p. 358) 1. the three ossicles: malleus, incus and stapes
2. tympanic membrane
3. an oval window and a round window
4. no openings but is solid
 61. The small bones located in the middle ear, known collectively as the ossicles, include: (p. 358) 1. tympanum, oval and round windows.
2. pinna, vestibule and eustachian.
3. malleus, incus, and stapes.
4. ossicles I, II and III.
 62. Chewing gum, yawning, and swallowing in elevators and airplanes help to move air through the ______ tubes, which equalizes air pressure upon ascent and descent. (p. 359) 1. auditory
2. tympanic
3. cochlear
4. eustachian (auditory)
 63. True or False. The outer ear and middle ear contain air, and the inner ear is filled with fluid. (pp. 358-359) True
False
 64. The inner ear is divided into _____________. (p. 359) 1. two areas, the semicircular and fully circular canals
2. three areas: the semicircular canals, the vestibule and the cochlea
3. four areas: ampulla, utricle, saccule, and organ of Corti
4. five areas: three semicircular canals and the utricle and saccule
 65. The base of each of the three semicircular canals in the ear is called the ______. (p. 359) 1. eustachian
2. ampulla
3. organ of Corti
4. otolith
 66. In the ear, the utricle and the saccule are located in the ______. (p. 359) 1. eustachian tube
2. semicircular canal
3. organ of Corti
4. vestibule
 67. True or False. In the ear, hair cells with cilia are found in the utricle and the saccule. (p. 359) True
False
 68. The canals contained in the spiral-shaped tubular cochlea include _____________. (p. 359) 1. the vestibular, cochlear, and tympanic canals
2. the utricle and saccule
3. all branches of the organ of Corti
4. the eustachian canal and the eerie canal
 69. In the ear, the ___________ membrane forms the lower wall of the cochlear canal. (p. 359) 1. semicircular
2. tectorial
3. tympanic
4. basilar
 70. In the ear, the hair cells of the cochlear canal plus the tectorial membrane are called the __________. (p. 359) 1. eustachian tube
2. semicircular canal
3. organ of Corti
4. vestibule
 71. The function of the organ of Corti in the ear is to ___________. (p. 359) 1. protect the eardrum
2. send nerve impulses to the cerebrum
3. direct sound waves to the tympanic membrane
4. balance air pressure on both sides of the tympanum
 72. The intensity of sound, or sound level, is measured in ___________. (p. 360) 1. millihertz
2. decibels
3. pounds per square inch or grams per square centimeter
4. Doppler units
 73. The sense of balance includes ___________ equilibrium. (p. 362) 1. horizontal and vertical
2. auditory
3. dynamic and static
4. amplitude and pitch
 74. ___________ equilibrium is required when the body is moving. (p. 362) 1. Horizontal
2. Vertical
3. Dynamic
4. Static
 75. True or False. In the ear, when the cilia of the hair cells bend, nerve impulses travel to the oval window. (p. 362) True
False
 76. One form of motion sickness results because of continuous movement of __________ in the ear. (p. 362) 1. fluid in the semicircular canals
2. otoliths in the utricle and saccule
3. gelatinous material in the ampullae
4. air in the eustachian tube
 77. True or False. Movement of the otoliths within the utricle and the saccule is important for static equilibrium in the ear. (p. 362) True
False
 78. The process of hearing begins when sound waves enter the ___________. 1. auditory canal (p. 362)
2. middle ear
3. inner ear
4. cochlea
5. eustachian tube
 79. True or False. In the cochlea, the pressure waves move from the vestibular canal to the round window to the tympanic canal. (p. 363) True
False
 80. Each part of the organ of Corti is sensitive to different wave frequencies, or ______. (p. 363) 1. intensity
2. tone
3. pitch
4. quality
 81. Loud noises cause the fluid of the cochlea to vibrate ___________. (p. 363) 1. to a lesser degree
2. to a greater degree
3. there is no effect on degree of vibration
 82. True or False. Increased stimulation of the basilar membrane is interpreted by the brain as volume. (p. 363) True
False
 83. Two major types of deafness are ____________. (p. 363) 1. volume deafness and pitch deafness
2. general deafness and selective deafness
3. congenital deafness and acquired deafness
4. conduction deafness and nerve deafness
 84. Conduction deafness can occur as a result of _____________. (p. 363) 1. cilia on the sense receptors in the cochlea have worn away
2. listening to very loud music or enduring continuous loud noise
3. a congenital defect contracted during pregnancy
4. cold and ear infections
5. both 3 and 4
 85. The wearing away of cilia in the cochlea results in ___________. (p. 363) 1. nerve deafness
2. conductive deafness
3. stone deafness
4. congenital deafness
 86. True or False. Older people are more likely than young persons to have trouble hearing. (p. 363) True
False
 87. True or False. The usual types of hearing aids are effective for nerve deafness. (p. 363) True
False
Return to Study Questions Chapter 18--Musculoskeletal System

Chapter 18--Musculoskeletal System

1. All red blood cells are produced in the spleen. (p. 329) True
False
 2. Yellow bone marrow is primarily ___________. (p. 329) 1. for cartilage production
2. fat storage
3. osteoblasts and osteoclasts
4. collagen fibers and calcium salts
5. blood stem cells
 3. The spaces in spongy bones are often filled with red bone marrow, which produces ________. (p. 329) 1. cartilage
2. blood vessels and nerves
3. osteoblasts and osteoclasts
4. collagen fibers and calcium salts
5. blood cells
 4. The central canals in compact bone contain __________. (p. 329) 1. cartilage
2. blood vessels and nerves
3. osteoblasts and osteoclasts
4. collagen fibers and calcium salts
5. blood stem cells
 5. The tiny chambers that contain bone cells and are arranged in concentric circles are called ________. (p. 329) 1. cartilage
2. red bone marrow
3. osteoblasts and osteoclasts
4. lacunae
5. yellow bone marrow
6. True or false. Cells that break down bone are called osteocytes. (p. 329) True
False
 7. The function(s) of an osteoclast is/are to ________________. (p. 329) 1. remove worn cells and deposit calcium in the blood
2. form new bone tissue
3. constantly generate new blood cells
4. generate cartilage
8. The production of new bone tissue is dependent on the growth of the ________ cells. (p. 329) 1. osteocyte
2. osteoclast
3. osteoblast
4. cartilage
 9. True or false. Osteocytes are found in the osteons. (p. 329) True
False
 10. Eventually, some osteoblasts get caught in the ________ they secrete and are converted to osteocytes. (p. 329) 1. matrix
2. cartilage
3. marrow
4. canaliculi
 11. True or false. The thickness of the bones never changes once a person is fully grown. (p. 329) True
False
 12. Skeletal muscles are attached to the skeleton, and their contraction accounts for (pp. 330, 335) 1. involuntary movements.
2. voluntary movements.
3. skeletal growth
4. restriction of skeletal growth
 13. The axial skeleton lies in/at the ________ . (p. 331) 1. top of the body, supporting the head
2. extended limbs of the body
3. midline of the body
4. left and right side of the body
 14. The axial skeleton consists of _________. (p. 331) 1. only the skull
2. all bones within the pectoral and pelvic girdles and the attached limbs
3. the skull, vertebral column, sternum and ribs
4. fingers and toes
 15. True or false. All of the sinuses drain into the nasal cavity. (p. 331) True
False
 16. In newborns, certain cranial bones are NOT completely formed and instead are joined by membranous regions called ________. (p. 331) 1. sinuses
2. chitin
3. fontanels
4. osteons
 17. The frontal, parietal and occipital are bones that form the ____________. (p. 331) 1. pelvic girdle
2. shoulder region
3. hand
4. skull
 18. The jaw consists of the ___________. (p. 331) 1. frontal and parietal bones
2. mandible and maxillae
3. palatine, zygomatic and nasal bones
4. phalanges and carpals
 19. The vertebral column extends from the skull to the ________. (p. 332) 1. frontal bone
2. pelvis
3. sternum
4. phalanges
20. Normally, the vertebral column is not straight but has ________ curvature(s). (p. 332) 1. one major
2. two
3. three
4. four
 21. True or false. Intervertebral disks, located between the vertebrae, allow motion between the vertebrae so that we can bend. (p. 332) True
False
 22. True or false. All ribs connect directly to the lumbar vertebrae. (p. 332) True
False
 23. True or false. The two pairs of "floating ribs" are so-called because they are NOT attached to any other bone structure but are freely embedded in muscle. (p. 332) True
False
 24. Which of the following is NOT in the appendicular skeleton? (p. 332) 1. clavicle
2. coxal
3. metatarsals
4. vertebrae
 25. The components of the ________ are loosely linked by ligaments rather than firm joints. (p. 332) 1. pelvic girdle
2. cranium
3. pectoral girdle
4. jaw
 26. ________ is a term that refers to either fingers or toes. (p. 332) 1. Carpals
2. Tarsals
3. Clavicles
4. Digits
 27. True or false. The arm twists easily because the radius and the ulna are always parallel to each other. (p. 332) True
False
 28. The ________ bone that leads out to the thumb is positioned so that the thumb can reach out and touch the other digits. (p. 332) 1. carpal
2. tarsal
3. metacarpal
4. metatarsal
5. phalanges
 29. The bones of the arm consist of the ______________. (p. 332) 1. zygomatic and palatine
2. clavicle and scapula
3. carpals, metacarpals and phalanges
4. humerus, ulna, and radius
5. patella, extensor and flexor
 30. The joint in the arm that is most easily dislocated is the ________. (p. 332) 1. wrist where the carpals interface with the radius and ulna
2. head of the humerus that fits into the scapula
3. elbow where the humerus interfaces with the radius and ulna
4. none of the above since the arm does not suffer from dislocations
 31. The scientific name for the hipbones that anchor to the sacrum is the ________ bone(s). (p. 333) 1. pubic arch
2. tibial
3. fibular
4. coxal
 32. Which of the following is NOT a bone in the leg? (p. 333) 1. femur
2. tibia
3. ulna
4. fibula
 33. True or false. In the lower leg, the fibula has a frontal ridge we call the "shin." (p. 333) True
False
 34. True or false. The bones of the toes are called phalanges. (p. 333) True
False
 35. Some bones, such as those in the ________, are sutured together in fibrous joints and are therefore immovable. (p. 334) 1. hand and foot
2. cranium
3. vertebrae
4. knee
 36. Most joints are freely movable ________ joints. (p. 334) 1. fibrous
2. cartilaginous
3. synovial
4. cranial
 37. True or false. Bones are held in place by muscles. (p. 334) True
False
 38. ________ most often attach muscles to a joint. (p. 334) 1. Tendons
2. Ligaments
3. Menisci
4. Synovia
 39. In a "double-jointed" individual, the ________ are unusually loose. (p. 334) 1. tendons
2. ligaments
3. menisci
4. synovia
 40. The knee is an example of a ________ joint. (p. 334) 1. fibrous
2. cartilaginous
3. synovial
4. cranial
 41. True or false. The bones of the knee are capped by cartilage. (p. 334) True
False
 42. The knee has pieces of cartilage between the bones called ________. (p. 334) 1. bursae
2. fontanels
3. synovia
4. menisci
 43. Synovial joints occur in two types: ______________. (p. 334) 1. cartilaginous and fibrous joints
2. hinge and ball-and-socket joints
3. synovia and bursae
4. those joined by ligaments and those joined by tendons
 44. The most versatile joints that permit the most movement are the _____________. (p. 334) 1. hinge joints
2. ball-and-socket joints
3. fibrous and cartilaginous joints
4. vertebral joints
 45. Synovial joints are subject to a general disease called ________. (p. 334) 1. arthritis
2. bursitis
3. osteoporosis
4. tendinitis
 46. Rheumatoid arthritis is caused by __________. (p. 334) 1. a bacteria
2. a virus
3. a reaction to an immunization
4. an autoimmune reaction
 47. True or false. Osteoarthritis develops because the cartilage at the ends of the bones disintegrates. (p. 334) True
False
 48. True or false. Osteoarthritis affects the joints that have been used the least. (p. 334) True
False
 49. Joints are classified according to the degree of ________ . (p. 334) 1. protection they afford
2. movement they provide
3. weight they support
4. stress they endure
 50. Because we need to both extend and flex at a joint, muscles generally work in ________. (p. 335) 1. parallel contraction at the same time
2. a constant state of flexion
3. antagonistic pairs
4. cycles of forcible extension and forcible contraction
 51. The lower arm extends when the ___________. (p. 335) 1. triceps brachii contracts
2. biceps brachii contracts
3. gastrocnemius contracts
4. muscle insertion meets the origin
 52. Skeletal muscles attach ____________. (p. 335) 1. at two origins
2. with the insertion of the muscle on the bone that moves
3. with the origin of the muscle on the bone that moves
4. at two insertion points
 53. A muscle fiber obeys the ____________. (p. 335) 1. law of maximum stimulus
2. law of self defense
3. all-or-none law
4. threshold stimulus
 54. In a muscle fiber, the cell membrane is called the _________. (p. 336) 1. sarcolemma
2. sarcoplasm
3. sarcoplasmic reticulum
4. myofibril
 55. A simple muscle twitch recorded on a Physiograph is divided into what periods? (p. 335) 1. latent period
2. contraction period
3. relaxation period
4. all of the above
 56. The visual graph formed from changing the mechanical force of contraction into an electrical current is called a/an ___________. (p. 335) 1. twitch pattern
2. EKG
3. myogram
4. oscilloscope tracing
 57. True or false. Potassium ions (K+), which are stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum, are essential for muscle contraction. (pp. 336-337) True
False
 58. The contractile elements of muscle fibers are called ________. (p. 337) 1. creatine phosphate
2. sarcoplasm
3. sarcoplasmic reticulum
4. myofibrils
5. neuromuscular junctions
 59. True or false. Myofibrils have light and dark bands called neuromuscular junctions. (p. 337) True
False
 60. A sarcomere extends between two dark ________ lines. (p. 336-337) 1. Q
2. Z
3. T
4. R
 61. True or false. The two types of protein filaments in sarcomeres are tropomyosin and troponin. (p. 337) True
False
 62. According to the sliding filament theory, ________ is/are the filament(s) that slides. (p. 337) 1. neuromuscular junctions
2. actin
3. myosin
4. myofibrils
5. neuromuscular junctions
 63. In the presence of calcium ions and ATP, portions of a myosin filament called _________ bend backward and attach to an actin filament. (p. 337) 1. neuromuscular junctions
2. creatine phosphate
3. sarcomeres
4. cross-bridges
 64. After attaching, the cross-bridges of the myosin bend forward and the __________ is/are pulled along. (p. 337) 1. neuromuscular junction
2. creatine phosphate
3. sarcomere
4. actin filament
5 I band
 65. Creatine phosphate ____________. (p. 337) 1. can be used in the reaction: actin + myosin = actomyosin
2. is used to regenerate ADP to ATP
3. is the molecule that triggers contraction
4. forms the core strand of myosin
 66. ________ provide(s) the energy for muscle contraction. (p. 337) 1. ATP
2. Calcium ions
3. Five-carbon sugars
4. Mitochondria
5 ATPase enzyme
 67. Oxygen debt is associated with ___________. (p. 338) 1. the metabolism of lactate that has accumulated with exercise
2. production of ATP
3. continued heavy breathing after exercise
4. all of the above
 68. The sliding filament theory of muscle contraction involves: (p. 338) 1. calcium ions releasing ATP for energy
2. calcium ions binding with troponin, which displaces tropomyosin and allows the myosin-binding sites on actin to be exposed
3. neuromuscular junctions directly producing the movement of actin and myosin
4. actin filaments moving the myosin filaments in each sarcomere
69. Muscle fatigue (p. 338) 1. follows summation and tetanus
2. involves the buildup of lactate from pyruvic acid
3. results when inefficient fermentation provides only a little ATP
4. does all of the above
 70. The junction between a nerve and a muscle is called a_____________. (p. 338) 1. neuromuscular junction
2. synapse
3. sarcomere
4. neurotransmitter
 71. Released acetylcholine reaches a sarcolemma, depolarizing the sarcolemma. The result is called a ________. (p. 338) 1. neuromuscular junction
2. synapse
3. muscle twitch
4. neurotransmission
5. muscle action potential
 72. Exercise ____________. (p. 340) 1. improves cardiorespiratory endurance
2. increases lung and diffusion capacity
3. improves the ratio of protein to fat
4. helps prevent certain kinds of cancer
5. does all of the above
Return to Study Questions Chapter 17--Nervous System

Chapter 17--Nervous System

1. Which of the following are parts of neurons? (p. 306) 1. brain, spinal cord, and vertebral column
2. dendrite, axon, and cell body
3. sensory and motor
4. cortex, medulla and sheath
 2. A dendrite conducts nerve impulses ________ the cell body. (p. 306) 1. away from
2. toward
3. both toward and away from
4. around, bypassing
 3. An axon conducts nerve impulses _________ the cell body. (p. 306) 1. away from
2. toward
3. both toward and away from
4. around, bypassing
 4. Which of the following is/are type(s) of neurons? (p. 306) 1. sensory
2. motor
3. interneurons
4. all of the above
 5. True or false. Sensory nerve cells act as the decision-making cells for certain stimuli. (p. 306) True
False
 6. True or false. A sensory neuron has a short dendrite and a long axon. (p. 306) True
False
 7. True or false. A motor neuron has short dendrites and a long axon. (p. 306) True
False
 8. A sensory neuron is also referred to as a/an ________ neuron. (p. 306) 1. association
2. efferent
3. afferent
4. peripheral
 9. True or false. A motor neuron is also referred to as the association neuron. (p. 306) True
False
 10. True or false. Derived from Latin, afferent means "running to" and efferent means "running away from". (p. 306) True
False
 11. True or false. Like sensory and motor neurons, an interneuron also has one other name by which it is called: ______________. (p. 306) 1. association
2. efferent
3. afferent
4. peripheral
 12. An interneuron has _____________. (p. 306) 1. long dendrites and a short axon
2. long dendrites and a long axon
3. short dendrites and a long axon
4. short dendrites and a long or short axon
 13. True or false. Schwann cells are the main neurons of the spinal cord. (p. 307) True
False
 14. Schwann cells are one of several types of ________ cells in the nervous system. (p. 307) 1. sensory
2. motor
3. association
4. neuroglial
 15. Neuroglial cells support and provide nutrition for the ________. (p. 307) 1. muscle cells
2. glands
3. neurons
4. nephrons
 16. True or false. Schwann cells produce layers of membrane containing myelin, which provides nutrition for the dendrites. (p. 307) True
False
 17. Which of the following are created by Schwann cells? (p. 307) 1. nodes of Ranvier
2. the myelin sheath
3. both 1 and 2
 18. True or false. Nerve impulses go from sensory neurons in sense organs directly to the muscles and glands that respond. (p. 307) True
False
 19. True or false. A nerve impulse is the way a sensory neuron receives information. (p. 308) True
False
 20. Nerve impulses create a change in voltage which is measured by and can be seen on a(n) ________. (p. 308) 1. stethoscope
2. electrocardiogram
3. oscilloscope
4. laparoscope
 21. Axoplasm is the ________ . (p. 308) 1. blood plasma that nourishes a nerve
2. fluid external to the axon but inside the myelin sheath
3. cytoplasm of the dendrite
4. cytoplasm of the axon
22. True or false. When the axon is conducting an impulse, the oscilloscope records a constant membrane potential, equal to about -65mV. (p. 308) True
False
 23. The resting potential indicates that the inside of the neuron is ________ compared to the outside. (p. 308) 1. under ionic pressure
2. positive
3. negative
4. inactive
 24. The "sodium-potassium pump" pumps ___________. (pp. 308-309) 1. sodium ions out and potassium ions in
2. sodium ions in and potassium ions out
3. sodium and potassium ions in
4. sodium and potassium ions out
 25. An axon can be stimulated to conduct a nerve impulse by ___________. (p. 308) 1. electric shock
2. sudden change in pH
3. a physical pinch
4. all of the above
 26. The pattern that appears on the oscilloscope screen is caused by rapid ________. (p. 308) 1. polarity changes
2. pH changes
3. breakdown of the membrane structure
4. all of the above
 27. The action potential is measured in millivolts (mV) and is ranged from: (pp. 308-309) 1. -90mV to +20mV
2. -70mV to +30mV
3. -65mV to +40mV
4. -30mV to +60mV
 28. Depolarization of the axomembrane is recorded as the gates open, allowing ________ to flow into the axon. (pp. 308-309) 1. potassium ions
2. H+ ions
3. sodium ions
4. all of the above
 29. True or false. The action potential changes the charge inside the axon from positive to negative. (pp. 308-309) True
False
 30. As the action potential swings down, (pp. 308-309) 1. potassium ions move out of the axon.
2. potassium ions move into the axon.
3. sodium ions move into the axon.
 31. As the potassium ions move out of the axon, the oscilloscope records a ________. (pp. 308-309) 1. depolarization
2. repolarization
3. equalizing of negative and positive ions
4. shutdown of the membrane pumps
 32. A refractory period is___________. (p. 308) 1. a brief time when a neuron is unable to conduct an impulse
2. the period during which potassium and sodium ions are completely stable
3. the same as the resting potential
4. the short time the myelin sheath provides insulation from another impulse
5. is a reverse impulse that resets the sodium and potassium balance
 33. In humans, transmission of nerve impulses across a synaptic cleft is carried out by ________. (p. 310) 1. sodium ions
2. potassium ions
3. neurotransmitter molecules
4. the nodes of Ranvier
 34. Neurotransmitter molecules diffuse across a cleft to the postsynaptic membrane, where they bind with a receptor in a ________ .(p. 310) 1. ionic bond
2. lock-and-key manner
3. permanent covalent bond
4. refractory manner
 35. Acetylcholine and norepinephrine are two well-known _________.(p. 310) 1. postsynaptic receptors
2. enzymes that rapidly inactivate neurotransmitters
3. drugs of abuse
4. neurotransmitters
 36. Acetylcholine and norepinephrine are excitatory or inhibitory according to the type of receptor at the ________ membrane. (p. 311) 1. axonal
2. cell body
3. presynaptic
4. postsynaptic
5. nuclear
 37. Which of the following is NOT a neurotransmitter? (p. 311) 1. acetylcholine
2. serotonin
3. dopamine
4. acetylcholinesterase
 38. What are the main divisions of the nervous system? (p. 311) 1. the sensory system and the motor system
2. the peripheral nervous system and central nervous system
3. the dendritic and the axonal systems
4. the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems
 39. The peripheral nervous system includes the nerves, which project from the ________. (p. 312) 1. CNS
2. PNS
3. motor system
4. autonomic system
 40. The peripheral nervous system (PNS) lies outside the central nervous system (CNS). (p. 311) True
False
 41. The PNS nerves are part of either the somatic system or the ________ . (p. 311) 1. motor system
2. central nervous system
3. sympathetic system
4. parasympathetic system
5. autonomic system
 42. The somatic system contains nerves that control _________. (p. 312) 1. skeletal muscles
2. internal organs, joints, and glands.
3. skeletal muscles, skin, and glands.
4. smooth muscles, cardiac muscles and glands
 43. How many pairs of cranial nerves do humans have? (p. 312) 1. 4
2. 12
3. 16
4. none of the above
 44. True or false. Humans have 12 pairs of spinal nerves. (p. 312) True
False
 45. True or false. Nerves are structures that contain many short fibers joined end-to-end. (p. 312) True
False
 46. True or false. A nerve fiber obeys the all-or-none law. (p. 312) True
False
 47. True or false. A nerve obeys the all-or-none law. (p. 312) True
False
 48. The somatic nervous system includes mixed nerves that serve the _____________. (p. 312) 1. musculoskeletal system and the exterior sense organs, including those in skin
2. sympathetic system
3. parasympathetic system
4. heart, internal glands, and most digestive organs
 49. The sensory neurons that come from internal organs send impulses to the CNS where reflex actions _____________. (p. 313) 1. are critical to conscious decision making
2. are especially important to the maintenance of homeostasis
3. trigger all neurotransmitters
4. control our emotional moods
 50. Which of the following are characteristic of the sympathetic system? (p. 315) 1. inhibits the digestive tract
2. dilates the bronchi
3. accelerates the heartbeat
4. all of the above
 51. True or false. The parasympathetic system is called the "housekeeper system" because it keeps us alert and ready for "fight or flight." (p. 315) True
False
 52. Which of the following is/are characteristic of the parasympathetic system? (p. 315) 1. causes the pupil to contract
2. promotes digestion of food
3. retards the heartbeat
4. all of the above
 53. The central nervous system consists of the ____________. (p. 316) 1. combination of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
2. brain and spinal cord
3. combined sensory and motor systems
4. cranial and spinal nerves
 54. The part of the body that integrates the information it receives from all over the body in order to make decisions is called the ________. (p. 316) 1. peripheral nervous system
2. sympathetic nervous system
3. parasympathetic nervous system
4. central nervous system
 55. True or false. The central nervous system consists only of the brain. (p. 316) True
False
 56. The brain and spinal cord are protected by membranes known as the ________. (p. 316) 1. nodes of Ranvier
2. meninges
3. axomembranes
4. myelin sheath
 57. True or false. Cerebrospinal fluid is found only in the brain. (p. 316) True
False
 58. Consciousness resides primarily in the ________. (p. 319) 1. medulla oblongata
2. cerebellum
3. cerebrum
4. pons
 59. True or false. The subconscious brain relays messages to and from the spinal cord. (p. 319) True
False
 60. The ________ contains centers for heartbeat, breathing, and blood pressure. (p. 317) 1. cerebellum
2. cerebrum
3. spinal cord
4. medulla oblongata
 61. The medulla oblongata contains reflex centers for _______________. (p. 317) 1. vomiting, coughing, sneezing, hiccuping, and swallowing
2. kneejerk and blinking
3. sexual response
4. fast responses on test questions
 62. The function of the cerebellum is ___________. (p. 318) 1. consciousness
2. muscle coordination
3. homeostasis
4. sense reception
 63. Which of the following are examples of areas of the cerebral cortex that have been mapped in detail? (p. 319) 1. motor
2. sensory
3. association
4. all of the above
 64. True or false. The two halves of the brain, the left brain and the right brain, are NOT connected and share no communication. (p. 319) True
False
 65. Alcohol is primarily metabolized in the_________. (p. 321) 1. brain, which accounts for its mental effects
2. muscles, which accounts for its effect on movement
3. liver, where it disrupts glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
4. bloodstream, which is why it has widespread effects
 66. The biological effects of excess alcohol include(s) ____________. (p. 321) 1. lactic acid builds up and the blood becomes more acidic
2. excess active acetate cannot be broken down and the liver becomes fatty
3. fibrous scar tissue forms and liver cells die
4. high levels of energy as food but too few amino acids, vitamins or minerals
5. all of the above are correct
 67. The nicotine in cigarette smoke_________. (p. 322) 1. has been found to be perfectly harmless
2. causes an excess of dopamine which leads to drug dependence
3. decreases heartbeat rate and blood pressure
4. increases urine flow
5. all of the above
 68. True or false. A person does not become physically dependent on marijuana. (p. 322) True
False
 69. The active ingredient in marijuana is____________. (p. 322) 1. nicotine
2. cocaine from Erythroxylum cocoa
3. dopamine
4. THC or tetrahydrocannabinol from the Cannabis sativa resin
5. an alkaloid of opium
 70. The active ingredient in cocaine is____________. (pp. 322-323) 1. nicotine
2. a plant alkaloid from the Erythroxylum cocoa shrub
3. dopamine
4. THC or tetrahydrocannabinol from the Cannabis sativa resin
5. an alkaloid of opium
 71. True or false. High doses of cocaine can cause death from cardiac and respiratory arrest.(pp. 322-323) True
False
 72. Cocaine affects the mood by interfering with the uptake of ________ from synaptic clefts.(pp. 322-323) 1. nicotine
2. oxygen
3. dopamine
4. acetylcholine
5. epinephrine
 73. Heroin works by binding to receptors meant for the body's own opioids, called ________. (p. 323) 1. endorphins
2. nicotines
3. dopamines
4. acetylcholines
5. epinephrines
 74. When a person needs more of a drug to feel the same high, it is called ________. (p. 323) 1. dependence
2. compensation
3. tolerance
4. withdrawal
5. dysphoria
 75. True or false. Withdrawal from drugs is a safe procedure and does NOT cause any longterm physical harm. (p. 323) True
False
 76. True or false. Methamphetamine is derived from poppies and must be imported into this country. (p. 324) True
False
 77. Called "ice," methamphetamine is ______________. (p. 324) 1. a chemical that uses frozen water in its production, hence its name
2. a pure, crystalline hydrochloride salt
3. a new plant alkaloid extracted from marijuana
4. a mixture of heroin and cocaine
 78. True or false. Methamphetamine is different from cocaine in that its effects are temporary. (p. 324) True
False
 79. True or false. MPPP is an analogue of the narcotic fentanyl. (p. 324) True
False
Return to Study Questions Chapter 16--Excretory System

Chapter 16--Excretory System

1. Excretion rids the body of ________. (p. 288) 1. excess food
2. cellular metabolic wastes
3. nondigestible ingested material
4. all of the above
 2. The organ(s) of excretion is/are _______. (p. 288) 1. skin
2. lungs
3. liver
4. kidneys
5. all of the above
 3. True or false. Excretion refers to the elimination of feces from the body. (p. 288) True
False
 4. ________ contain(s) nitrogen. (p. 288) 1. Amino acids
2. Nucleotides
3. Creatine phosphate
4. all of the above
 5. In humans, the liver _________. (p. 288) 1. removes carbon dioxide from the body
2. excretes bile pigments, which are derived from the break down of hemoglobin
3. converts urea to ammonia
4. regulates the body temperature
5. all of the above are liver functions
 6. The lungs are the major organs of ________ excretion. (p. 288) 1. salt
2. carbon dioxide
3. water
4. ammonia
5. urea
 7. Bile pigments are derived from the ________ . (p. 288) 1. salt intake via the duodenum and gallbladder
2. break down of white blood cells in the liver
3. cholesterol in the liver
4. ammonia in the kidneys
5. heme portion of hemoglobin.
 8. Bile is stored within the ________. (p. 288) 1. liver
2. gallbladder
3. urinary bladder
4. nephrons
5. lungs
 9. True or false. The lungs are the primary excretory organs. (p. 288) True
False
 10. The sweat glands in the skin excrete ________. (p. 288) 1. a solution of water, salt, and some urea
2. carbon dioxide in solution
3. cholesterol, urea and some water
4. ammonia, bile and some urea
 11. True or false. We perspire more to rid the body of waste than to cool it. (p. 288) True
False
 12. The process of expiration __________. (p. 288) 1. removes carbon dioxide from the body and results in loss of water
2. excretes nitrogenous wastes and governs osmotic regulation
3. regulates salt levels in the bloodstream
4. regulates ammonia levels in the bloodstream
 13. Most animals have tubular organs that function in __________. (p. 289) 1. cellular respiration
2. the excretion of nitrogenous wastes and osmotic regulation
3. movement by a system of hydralic valves
4. sensory control
 14. Nearly every segment of an earthworm's body has a pair of tubules called ________. (p. 289) 1. excretory tubules
2. Malpighian tubules
3. nephridia
4. helminthic kidneys
 15. True or false. Insects have blind-end tubules called Malpighian tubules, which are attached to the gut. (p. 289) True
False
 16. True or false. Osmotic regulation is unrelated to the environment of the animal. (p. 289) True
False
 17. The urine of fishes that live in salt water is ________ to blood. (p. 289) 1. isotonic
2. hypotonic
3. hypertonic
4. unrelated
 18. ________ is/are produced in the liver by a complicated series of reactions. (pp. 288-289) 1. Amino acids
2. Nucleotides
3. Creatine phosphate
4. Ammonia
5. Urea
 19. True or false. Crystals of uric acid sometimes collect in the joints, producing a painful ailment called gout. (p. 289) True
False
 20. Creatinine is an end product of ________ metabolism. (p. 289) 1. lung
2. nucleotide
3. muscle
4. ammonia
5. anaerobic
 21. Excretory substances include ____________. (p. 288) 1. water and salts
2. carbon dioxide
3. bile pigments
4. all of the above
 22. The urinary system consists of (p. 290) 1. kidneys
2. ureters
3. urinary bladder
4. all of the above
 23. True or false. The kidneys lie above the membranous lining of the abdominal cavity. (p. 290) True
False
 24. The ________ are muscular tubes that convey the urine from the kidneys to the bladder. (p. 290) 1. urethras
2. ureters
3. urinary bladders
4. nephrons
 25. The ureters are muscular tubes that convey the urine from the kidneys to the bladder by ________. (p. 290) 1. beating of cilia
2. active transport
3. peristalsis
4. hypotonic pressure
 26. True or false. The urinary bladder can hold up to 600 ml of urine. (p. 290) True
False
 27. True or false. In the male, the urinary bladder lies behind the seminal vesicles. (p. 290) True
False
 28. True or false. There is a connection between the genital and urinary systems in females. (p. 290) True
False
 29. True or false. Only the urinary system, consisting of the kidneys, the urinary bladder, the ureters, and the urethra, ever holds urine. (p. 290) True
False
 30. On the concave side of each kidney there is a depression where (the) ________ enter(s). (p. 291) 1. renal artery
2. ureter
3. renal vein
4. all of the above
 31. The kidney consists of ____________. (p. 291) 1. the renal cortex
2. the renal medulla
3. the renal pelvis
4. all of the above
 32. True or false. The renal cortex contains cone-shaped tissue masses called renal pyramids. (p. 291) True
False
 33. A kidney contains many collecting ducts, which enter the renal ________. (p. 291) 1. cortex
2. medulla
3. pelvis
4. loop of the nephron
 33. True or false. Microscopically, the kidney is composed of over one million nephrons. (p. 291) True
False
 34. Nephrons are sometimes called __________. (p. 291) 1. convoluted tubules
2. renal or kidney tubules
3. loops of the nephron
4. glomerular capsules
 35. Each nephron in the kidney is made up of several parts, including ____________. (p. 292) 1. glomerular capsule
2. the proximal convoluted tubule
3. the loop of the nephron
4. all of the above
 36. True or false. The glomerular capsule and the convoluted tubule lie outside the renal cortex. (p. 292) True
False
 37. The ________ is a capillary tuft inside the glomerular capsule. (p. 293) 1. convoluted tubule
2. peritubular capillary
3. loop of the nephron
4. glomerulus
 38. True or false. The peritubular capillary surrounds most of the nephron. (p. 292) True
False
 39. Urine formation consists of ___________. (pp. 294-295) 1. pressure filtration
2. selective reabsorption
3. tubular excretion
4. all of the above
 40. True or false. The pattern of blood flow about the nephron is critical to urine formation. (pp. 294-295) True
False
 41. The filterable components of the blood that move across from the glomerulus are________. (p. 295) 1. water, nitrogenous wastes, nutrients, and salts
2. blood cells and platelets, and proteins
3. albumin, fats and other proteins
4. mainly blood cells
 42. The filterable components form ________. (p. 295) 1. the glomerular filtrate
2. tubular secretions
3. large molecular complexes
4. bile salts
 43. True or false. The nonfilterable components stay inside the glomerular capsule. (p. 295) True
False
 44. The cells lining the proximal convoluted tubule are anatomically adapted for ________ reabsorption. (p. 295) 1. passive
2. active
3. both active and passive
4. no
 45. Reabsorption is called ________ reabsorption because only molecules recognized by carrier molecules are actively reabsorbed. (pp. 294-296) 1. general
2. indiscriminate
3. selective
4 reverse
 46. The loop of the nephron is made up of ________ limb(s). (pp. 294-296) 1. a descending
2. an ascending
3. both ascending and descending
4. convoluted
 47. True or false. Water cannot leave the ascending limb of the loop of the nephron because the limb is impermeable to water. (pp. 294-296) True
False
 48. Drinking alcohol causes diuresis because it inhibits the secretion of ________. (p. 299) 1. ANH
2. ADH
3. angiotensin
4. cortisone
5. aldosterone
 49. ________ is a hormone that primarily maintains sodium ion balance. (p. 299) 1. ANH
2. ADH
3. Angiotensin
4. Cortisone
5. Aldosterone
 50. True or false. The kidneys contribute to homeostasis by excreting urea. (p. 300) True
False
 51. If the kidneys fail to function, _________. (p. 300) 1. other organs can carry on all the excretion functions for some time
2. renal failure becomes a life-threatening event
3. they rapidly regenerate their nephrons
4. cells store their own metabolic wastes until the kidneys function again
 52. Infection of the bladder is called ________. (p. 301) 1. pyelonephritis
2. urethritis
3. cystitis
4. hemodialysis
 53. The accumulation of waste substances in the blood is called ________. (p. 301) 1. pyelonephritis
2. urethritis
3. cystitis
4. hemodialysis
5. uremia
 54. When a urinalysis detects the presence of white or even red blood cells in the urine, it is___________. (p. 300) 1. normal
2. due to the retention of water and salts and called edema
3. due to uremia where over two-thirds of the nephrons are inoperative
4. due to the glomeruli being too permeable
5. due to urethritis with urethral hemorrhaging
 55. Kidney transplants are successful ___________. (p. 301) 1. about half the time
2. one hundred percent of the time
3. 90 percent of the time from nonrelatives; 97 percent if from a relative
4. 90 percent of the time from relatives; 97 percent if from nonrelatives
 56. Hemodialysis involves ___________. (p. 301) 1. a six-hour process twice a week
2. a balanced salt solution to remove wastes that are in higher concentration in the blood
3. a balanced salt solution with substances such as bicarbonate ions that are to be added to the blood
4. all of the above
Return to Study Questions Chapter 15--Respiratory System

Chapter 15--Respiratory System

1. True or false. During inspiration the pressure in the lungs increases. (p. 270) True
False
 2. During expiration, ________ pressure in the thoracic cavity causes air to leave the lungs. (p. 270) 1. increased
2. decreased
3. vaccuum
4. hydraulic
 3. Air passing along the respiratory tract is ________. (p. 270) 1. filtered
2. warmed
3. moistened with water
4. all of the above
 4. True or false. In the nose, the cilia beat upward carrying mucus and dust. (p. 270) True
False
 5. True or false. As air moves out during expiration, it cools and loses its moisture. (p. 270) True
False
 6. The human nose contains _____ nasal cavities. (p. 272) 1. one
2. two
3. four
4. eight
 7. The nasal cavities empty into the _________. (p. 272) 1. larynx
2. glottis
3. trachea
4. nasopharynx
5. epiglottis
 8. The moist membranes of the respiratory tract are protected by ________. (pp. 270-272) 1. a dry epidermal surface
2. cartilage rings
3. mucus and cilia
4. roving macrophages from the lymphatic system
5. acidic glands
 9. The ________ lead(s) from the nasopharynx to the middle ears. (p. 272) 1. larynx
2. glottis
3. trachea
4. epiglottis
5. auditory tubes
 10. True or false. The trachea lies behind the esophagus. (p. 273) True
False
 11. The esophagus opens only during ________. (p. 272) 1. inhaling
2. exhaling
3. speaking
4. swallowing
 12. True or false. The epiglottis prevents food from entering the larynx. (p. 273) True
False
 13. The ________ is the voice box. (pp. 272-273) 1. larynx
2. glottis
3. trachea
4. epiglottis
5. eustachian tubes
 14. The ________ is held open by cartilaginous rings. (p. 273) 1. larynx
2. glottis
3. trachea
4. epiglottis
5. eustachian tubes
 15. Inserting a tube by way of an incision made in the trachea is called a ________. (p. 273) 1. tonsilectomy
2. hysterectomy
3. tracheostomy
4. lobotomy
5. appendectomy
16. The trachea divides into two ________. (p. 273) 1. turbinates
2. nasal passages
3. trachea
4. bronchi
5. eustachian tubes
 17. The bronchi lead into the right and left ________. (p. 273) 1. larynx
2. glottis
3. trachea
4. lungs
5. eustachian tubes
 18. The bronchi branch into smaller passages called ________. (p. 273) 1. alveoli
2. bronchioles
3. microtrachea
4. bronchiettes
5. eustachian tubes
 19. Each bronchiole terminates in a space enclosed by a multitude of air pockets called ________. (p. 273) 1. alveoli
2. bronchioles
3. microtrachea
4. pleural membranes
5. eustachian tubes
 20. True or false. During an asthma attack the bronchioles dilate. (p. 273) True
False
 21. The right lung has ________ lobes and the left lung has ________ lobe(s). (p. 274) 1. two, one
2. two, three
3. three, two
4. four, three
 22. Each alveolar sac is surrounded by ________. (p. 274) 1. arteries
2. veins
3. capillaries
4. primarily lymphatic ducts
 23. Most of the ribs are hinged to the vertebral column at the back and to the ________ at the front. (pp. 276-277) 1. ventricles
2. sternum
3. pleural membranes
4. diaphragm
 24. The ________ forms the floor of the thoracic cavity. (p. 276) 1. ventricle
2. sternum
3. pleural membrane
4. diaphragm
 25. Respiration includes _____________. (p. 275) 1. breathing
2. external respiration
3. internal respiration
4. cellular respiration
5. all of the above
 26. The amount of air moved in and out with each breath is called the __________. (p. 275) 1. vital capacity
2. tidal volume
3. residual volume
4. dead space
5. ventilation rate
 27. Air remaining in the lungs after very deep breathing is called the ________. (p. 275) 1. vital capacity
2. tidal volume
3. residual volume
4. dead space
5. ventilation rate
 28. True or false. Residual volume is vital in providing a reservoir for gas exchange. (p. 275) True
False
 29. The maximum volume of air that can be moved in and out during a single breath is called the _________. (p. 275) 1. vital capacity
2. tidal volume
3. residual volume
4. dead space
5. ventilation rate
 30. True or false. Vital capacity is the maximum volume of air that can be moved in and out during a single breath. (p. 275) True
False
 31. The lungs are enclosed by the ________ . (p. 276) 1. alveolar integument
2. bronchiole membranes
3. pleural membranes
4. diaphragm
5. sternum
 32. In its relaxed state, the diaphragm is _____________. (p. 276) 1. horizontally flattened
2. vertically flattened
3. folded like a map
4. V-shaped like a set mousetrap
5. dome-shaped.
 33. True or false. As the thoracic cavity increases in size, the lungs expand and air rushes in. (pp. 276-277) True
False
 34. True or false. Inspiration is the passive phase of breathing. (pp. 276-277) True
False
 35. During inspiration the following occurs: (pp. 276-277) 1. the diaphragm and rib muscles contract.
2. intrapleural pressure decreases.
3. the lungs expand and air comes rushing in.
4. all of the above.
 36. True or false. Humans breathe by negative pressure. (p. 277) True
False
 37. The diaphragm and external intercostal muscles are ________ when expiration occurs. (p. 277) 1. contracted
2. relaxed
3. flexed
4. both relaxed (diaphragm) and flexed (intercostal muscles)
 38. The respiratory center is located in the ________. (p. 276) 1. individual body muscles that use up oxygen
2. alveoli
3. medulla oblongata
4. diaphragmatic center
5. pleural center
 39. The primary stimulus or stimuli for the respiratory center is/are _________. (p. 276) 1. carbon dioxide and hydrogen ions
2. oxygen gas levels in the blood
3. oxygen gas levels in the hemoglobin
4. conscious feeling for the need for more oxygen
 40. True or false. The respiratory center is directly affected by low oxygen levels. (p. 276) True
False
 41. Chemical receptors in carotid bodies respond to (p. 276) 1. hydrogen ion concentration.
2. levels of carbon dioxide in the blood.
3. levels of oxygen in the blood.
4. all of the above.
 42. When blood levels of carbon dioxide rise, the rate and depth of breathing _________. (p. 276) 1. decreases
2. increases
3. stays the same
4. stops
 43. The respiratory center sends out nerve impulses to the _________ . (p. 276) 1. control center in the brain
2. muscles of the body that regulate use of oxygen
3. diaphragm and rib cage
4. carotid and aortic bodies
 44. During ________ respiration, the respiratory pigment hemoglobin combines with oxygen in the lungs. (p. 275) 1. internal
2. external
3. aerobic cellular
4. circulatory
 45. True or false. During internal respiration, hemoglobin gives up carbon dioxide to the cells. (p. 275) True
False
 46. True or false. Some hemoglobin aids in the transport of carbon dioxide from the tissue to the lungs. (p. 278) True
False
 47. ________ refers to the exchange of gases between blood in systemic capillaries and tissue fluid. (p. 278) 1. Internal respiration
2. External respiration
3. Aerobic cellular respiration
4. Circulatory respiration
 48. The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between alveolar air and blood is governed by ________.(p. 278) 1. gravity
2. blood pressure
3. diffusion
4. active transport
 49. Blood flowing into lung capillaries has a higher concentration of _________ than atmospheric air. (p. 278) 1. oxygen
2. both carbon dioxide and oxygen
3. water
4. carbon dioxide
 50. True or false. Carbon dioxide diffuses out of blood into the alveoli. (p. 278) True
False
 51. True or false. Blood coming into the pulmonary capillaries is oxygenated and alveolar air is deoxygenated. (pp. 278-279) True
False
 52. Most of the carbon dioxide is being carried as ________ ions as blood enters the pulmonary capillaries. (p. 278) 1. deoxyhemoglobin
2. carbaminohemoglobin
3. bicarbonate
4. oxyhemoglobin
 53. True or false. Hb is called reduced hemoglobin. (p. 278) True
False
 54. Hemoglobin retains oxygen and tends to release it in the ________. (p. 278) 1. bloodstream
2. lungs
3. heart
4. tissues
 55. True or false. Hemoglobin takes up oxygen more readily in the warm temperatures and acidic pH of the lungs. (p. 280) True
False
 56. ________ refers to the exchange of gases between air in the alveoli and blood in the pulmonary capillaries. (p. 278) 1. Internal respiration
2. External respiration
3. Aerobic cellular respiration
4. Circulatory respiration
 57. During external respiration in the lungs ___________. (p. 278) 1. carbon dioxide leaves the blood
2. oxygen enters the blood
3. both carbon dioxide leaves the blood and oxygen enters the blood
4. both carbon dioxide enters the blood and oxygen leaves the blood
 58. Blood in systemic capillaries is bright red because ________. (p. 278) 1. red cells lack oxyhemoglobin
2. red cells contain oxyhemoglobin
3. red cells contain carbon dioxide
4. oxyhemoglobin in plasma is redder
 59. Oxygen diffuses out of blood into tissues because ___________. (p. 278) 1. oxygen concentration of tissue fluid is lower
2. carbon dioxide concentration of tissue fluid is lower
3. carbon dioxide concentration of tissue fluid is higher
4. the oxygen concentration of blood is lower
 60. True or false. Cells continuously use up oxygen in aerobic cellular respiration. (p. 275) True
False
 61. ________ is formed when hemoglobin takes up carbon dioxide. (p. 278) 1. Deoxyhemoglobin
2. Carbaminohemoglobin
3. Sodium bicarbonate
4. Oxyhemoglobin
 62. Most of the carbon dioxide combines with ________ forming carbonic acid. (p. 278) 1. hemoglobin
2. oxygen
3. water
4. sodium bicarbonate
 63. Carbonic acid dissociates into ________. (p. 278) 1. carbon dioxide and water
2. bicarbonate and hydrogen ions
3. carbon and acid
4. sodium and bicarbonate salts
64. HHb occurs when hemoglobin combines with excess ________ ions. (p. 278) 1. carbon dioxide
2. bicarbonate
3. hydrogen
4. sodium
65. HHb is called ________ hemoglobin. (p. 278) 1. oxidized
2. hydrated
3. reduced
4. hyper
 66. Bicarbonate ions are carried mostly __________. (p. 278) 1. by red blood cell membranes
2. in the plasma
3. by white blood cells
4. by hemoglobin
 67. True or false. Blood leaving the tissue capillaries is bright red because red blood cells contain reduced hemoglobin. (p. 278) True
False
 68. True or false. Acute bronchitis usually is caused by a secondary bacterial infection of the bronchi. (p. 282) True
False
 69. Chronic bronchitis is caused by __________. (p. 282) 1. a bacterial infection
2. a viral infection
3. constant irritation of the lining of the bronchi
 70. True or false. Strep throat is a viral infection. (p. 282) True
False
 71. True or false. Strep throat left untreated can lead to rheumatic fever. (p. 282) True
False
 72. Rheumatic fever can permanently damage ________. (p. 282) 1. heart muscles
2. heart valves
3. lung alveoli
4. pleural membranes
 73. True or false. Pneumonia and tuberculosis CANNOT be treated by antibiotics. (p. 282) True
False
 74. Smoking destroys the cilia and is one cause of chronic bronchitis. (p. 282) True
False
 75. Pneumonia is caused by ________. (p. 282) 1. bacteria
2. viruses
3. the protozoan Pneumocystis carinii in AIDS patients
4. all of the above can cause pneumonia
 76. Pneumonia in AIDS patients, who have a compromised immune sysem, is caused by a protozoan. (p. 282) True
False
 77. True or false. Tuberculosis causes the alveoli to burst and the alveoli are replaced by connective tissue. (p. 282) True
False
 78. Lack of oxygen to the brain can make the person feel ________. (p. 282) 1. sleepy
2. depressed, sluggish and irritable
3. hyperactive
4. like gasping for air
 79. Inhaling particles such as silica, coal dust and asbestos can lead to ________. (p. 282) 1. pneumonia
2. tuberculosis
3. pulmonary fibrosis
4. all of the above
 80. Polluted air contributes to _________. (p. 282) 1. emphysema and cancer
2. tuberculosis
3. pneumonia
4. all of the above are caused by air pollution
 81. The event(s) involved in the formation of lung cancer is/are _________. (p. 282) 1. callusing of cells lining the bronchi
2. loss of cilia
3. formation of cells with atypical nuclei
4. all of the above
Return to Study Questions Chapter 14--Lymphatic System and Immunity

Chapter 14--Lymphatic System and Immunity

1. The lymphatic system consists of _______. (p. 250) 1. lymphatic vessels and lymphoid organs.
2. all of the plasma component of the bloodstream.
3. all fluids inside the body's cells.
4. all liquids in the body whether inside cells or in spaces between tissues.
 2. The lymphatic system _______. (p. 250) 1. takes up excess tissue fluid and returns it to the bloodstream
2. absorbs fats in the intestinal villi and transports them to the bloodstream
3. defends the body against disease
4. All of the above are correct.
 3. The movement of lymph within lymphatic vessels is dependent upon _______. (p. 250) 1. residual blood pressure forcing the plasma through the blood vessels
2. suction from the contracting lymph nodes
3. skeletal muscle contraction and the action of one-way valves
4. active transport of lymph by cilia lining the lymphatic system
5. ameboid movement of the cellular component of the lymph, primarily the T-cells that "travel"
 4. Lymph is prevented from flowing backwards by ________. (p. 250) 1. blood pressure
2. suction from the contracting lymph nodes
3. one-way valves
4. cilia lining the lymphatic system
 5. The lymphatic system is _________. (p. 250) 1. a two-way transport system with fluids and cells moving both directions
2. a continuous closed circulation running parallel to the arteries and veins
3. a one-way system collecting the lymph from body tissues and spaces and reintroducing it to the bloodstream
4. a one-way system collecting lymph from body spaces and soaking it into the body cells
 6. Tissue fluid in the lymphatic system is called ________. (p. 250) 1. plasma
2. hemoplasma
3. Ringer's solution
4. lymph
5. universal solvent
 7. The thoracic duct serves (p. 250) 1. the lower extremities.
2. the abdomen.
3. the left arm.
4. all of the above.
 8. The thoracic and right lymphatic ducts return lymph to the ________. (p. 250) 1. dorsal aorta
2. abdominal cavity
3. heart ventricles
4. peritoneal cavities
5. subclavian veins
 9. True or false. The subclavian veins are cardiovascular veins in the abdomen. (p. 250) True
False
 10. ________ is localized swelling caused by accumulation of tissue fluid. (p. 250) 1. Immune deficiency disease
2. Allergies
3. Autoimmune disease
4. Edema
5. Hemolytic disease
 11. True or false. Lymph flows from lymphatic capillaries into ever-larger lymphatic vessels and finally to a lymphatic duct. (p. 250) True
False
 12. Which of the following is NOT a lymphoid organ: (p. 251) 1. red bone marrow
2. adenoids and tonsils
3. spleen
4. Peyer's patches in the intestinal wall
5. kidney
 13. True or false. Only red blood cells originate in the red bone marrow. (p. 252) True
False
 14. True or false. All bones in an adult have red bone marrow. (p. 252) True
False
 15. True or false. The red bone marrow consists of a network of connective tissue fibers called reticular fibers. (p. 252) True
False
 16. Each nodule of a lymph node contains a sinus filled with _______. (p. 251) 1. lymphocytes and macrophages
2. red marrow
3. red blood cells
4. lymph causing edema
 17. True or false. The tonsils and adenoids are composed of partly encapsulated lymph nodules. (p. 251) True
False
 18. True or false. The spleen is located in the lower right thoracic cavity just above the diaphragm. (p. 251) True
False
 19. The spleen's sinuses are filled with _______. (p. 251) 1. lymph
2. blood
3. water
4. salts
 20. A spleen nodule contains ________. (p. 251) 1. the factory that produces platelets
2. red pulp and white pulp
3. a reservoir of glucose stored as glycogen
4. hormone-producing islets
 21. True or false. Red pulp contains only red blood cells. (p. 251) True
False
 22. White pulp contains mostly _______. (p. 251) 1. lymphocytes
2. red blood cells
3. macrophages
4. Peyer's patches
 23. The thymus is located _______. (p. 252) 1. in the neck
2. in the upper left abdominal cavity just beneath the diaphragm
3. along the trachea behind the sternum.
4. along the intestinal wall
 24. True or false. The thymus is smaller in children than in adults. (p. 252) True
False
 25. The thymus secretes ________. (p. 252) 1. antibodies
2. hormones that mature the red blood cells
3. macrophages
4. lymph and is the main "lymph factory"
5. thymosin, a hormone thought to aid in maturation of T lymphocytes.
 26. True or false. Lymph is cleansed in lymph nodes and blood is cleansed in the spleen. (p. 251) True
False
 27. T lymphocytes mature in the ________. (p. 252) 1. spleen
2. red bone marrow
3. thymus
4. Peyer's patches lining the intestinal wall
5. thyroid
 28. Immunity is the ability of the body to defend itself against ________. (p. 252) 1. infectious agents including bacteria and viruses.
2. foreign cells.
3. cancer cells.
4. all of the above.
 29. The nonspecific defenses are ___________ (p. 252) 1. barriers to entry, the inflammatory reaction, and protective proteins
2. antibodies and antigens
3. the spleen and thymus
4. allergies, edema and regurgitation
 30. Barriers to entry of microbes include __________. (p. 252) 1. oil skin secretions and stomach acids
2. normal harmless bacteria that prevent pathogens from taking up residence
3. mucous membranes that line the respiratory, digestive and urinary tracts
4. skin that lines the outer surface of the body
5. all of the above help bar entry by microbes
31. True or false. The stomach has a basic pH inhibiting growth of bacteria. (p. 252) True
False
 32. The ________ reaction is a series of events occurring whenever the skin is broken due to a minor injury. (pp. 252-253) 1. allergic
2. antibody
3. complement fixation
4. inflammatory
5. suppressor T-cell
 33. ________ is a molecule initiating nerve impulses resulting in pain. (p. 253) 1. Analgesic
2. Immunoglobulin
3. Bradykinin
4. Histamine
5. Suppressin
 34. True or false. Histamine and bradykinin cause capillaries to constrict and become less permeable. (p. 253) True
False
 35. True or false. Any break in the skin allows microbes to enter the body. (p. 253) True
False
 36. How can neutrophils and monocytes reach an infection site from the bloodstream? (p. 253) 1. the blood vessels rupture at a site of infection
2. neutrophils and monocytes are amoeboid and can pass through capillary walls
3. they are small and diffuse across membranes just like food and gas molecules
4. they move upstream in the lymph system
5. the portable T lymphocyte differentiates into neutrophils and monocytes when it arrives at the site of infection
 37. What usually happens to a bacterium that crosses the skin barrier and enters tissues? (p. 253) 1. histamine is a poison to bacteria
2. neutrophils phagocytize the bacteria
3. bacteria liberate a growth factor that in turn increases the numbers of white blood cells that attack bacteria
4. all human tissues reject the bacterium and destroy it with lysosomes
 38. When monocytes leave the bloodstream, they differentiate into ________. (p. 253) 1. complement proteins
2. antibodies
3. interferon
4. macrophages
5. suppressor T-cells
 39. Some tissues have ______ which routinely act as scavengers, devouring old blood cells and other debris. (p. 253) 1. resident macrophages
2. suppressor T-cells
3. backup neutrophils
4. complimentary B-cells
 40. Pus indicates that ______________. (p. 253) 1. body tissues are dying
2. the body is trying to overcome infection
3. too much lymph has built up
4. the inflammatory response has failed to defend against bacterial invasion
 41. Complement is activated when ________ . (p. 254) 1. the inflammatory response has failed to defend against bacterial invasion
2. antibodies have failed to defend against bacterial invasion
3. microbes enter the body
4. interferon is produced by viruses
 42. True or false. Complement proteins bind to the surface of microbes and release chemicals that attract macrophages. (p. 254) True
False
 43. A virus-infected cell produces and secretes _______. (p. 254) 1. allergin
2. antigen
3. antibody
4. complement
5. interferon
 44. A/an ________ is a protein or carbohydrate chain of a glycoprotein molecule that the body recognizes as "non-self." (p. 254) 1. allergin
2. antigen
3. antibody
4. complement
5. interferon
 45. True or false. The immune system is chemically able to tell "self" from "non-self" based on a lock-and-key receptor-antigen fit. (p. 254) True
False
 46. True or false. B lymphocytes mature in the bloodstream. (p. 254) True
False
 47. T lymphocytes mature in the ________ . (p. 254) 1. bone marrow
2. lymph in the general lymphatic system
3. thymus gland
4. thyroid gland
5. spleen
 48. B cells give rise to plasma cells which produce ________. (p. 255) 1. allergin
2. antigen
3. antibody
4. complement
5. interferon
 49. True or false. Antibodies bind with antigens in a lock-and-key manner. (p. 254) True
False
 50. True or false. T cells produce antibodies. (pp. 254-258) True
False
 51. True or false. Cytotoxic T cells attack and destroy antigen-bearing cells. (p. 258) True
False
 52. True or false. There is a different lymphocyte type for each possible antigen. (p. 254) True
False
 53. A plasma cell is a mature B cell that mass produces ________. (p. 255) 1. allergens
2. antigens
3. antibodies
4. complement
5. interferon
 54. True or false. A B cell does not clone until its antigen is present. (p. 255) True
False
 55. True or false. When B cells undergo clonal expansion, they produce plasma cells and also memory B cells. (p. 255) True
False
 56. True or false. Defense by T cells is called antibody-mediated immunity. (p. 255) True
False
 57. Humoral immunity is so called because antibodies are present in the ________. (p. 255) 1. tissues
2. red blood cells
3. bloodstream
4. upper arm bone or "humerus"
5. cranium
 58. True or false. The most common type of antibody is a protein molecule with two arms. (p. 256) True
False
 59. The main antibody type in circulation is _______. (p. 256) 1. IgG
2. IgM
3. IgD
4. IgA
5. IgE
 60. ________ is the largest antibody. (p. 256) 1. IgG
2. IgM
3. IgD
4. IgA
5. IgE
 61. IgA antibodies are found in _______. (p. 256) 1. saliva and milk
2. blood and on mast cells in tissues
3. lymph
4. general plasma
62. IgG antibodies _________. (p. 256) 1. are responsible for allergic reactions
2. stimulate complement production
3. attack microbes and bacterial toxins, improve phagocytosis
4. trigger inflammation
 63. IgM antibodies _________. (p. 256) 1. attack microbes
2. activate complement and clump cells
3. attack bacterial toxins
4. are responsible for allergic reactions
 64. True or false. IgA antibodies attack microbes and bacterial toxins. (p. 256) 1. True
2. False
 65. ________ antibodies are responsible for allergic reactions. (p. 256) 1. IgG
2. IgM
3. IgD
4. IgA
5. IgE
 66. There is/are ________ main types of T cell(s). (p. 258) 1. one
2. two
3. three
4. four
5. five
 67. Which of the following is NOT a type of T cell? (p. 258) 1. cytotoxic T cells
2. helper T cells
3. memory T cells
4. plasma T cell
5. suppressor T cell
 68. True or false. All four types of T cells look different and are distinct under the microscope. (p. 258) True
False
 69. Cytotoxic T cells attack and destroy ________. (p. 258) 1. bacteria
2. viruses
3. cells that produce toxins or poisons
4. antigen-bearing cells.
 70. Cytotoxic T cells storage vacuoles contain _______. (p. 258) 1. antibodies
2. perforin
3. complement
4. IgG
 71. Perforin molecules function to ________. (p. 258) 1. perforate a cell membrane
2. stimulate production of complement
3. trigger production of interferon
4. label a cell for attack by cytotoxic T cells
 72. Perforin molecules form holes in plasma membranes, allowing _________. (p. 258) 1. water and salt to enter a cell
2. vital cell contents to leak out
3. macrophages to phagocytize cells
4. IgG to bind with foreign proteins
 73. ________ T cells are the only T cells involved in cell-mediated immunity. (p. 258) 1. Cytotoxic
2. Helper
3. Memory
4. Suppressor
74. The HIV virus attacks _______. (p. 258) 1. helper T cells.
2. cytotoxic T cells.
3. suppressor T cells.
4. memory T cells.
 75. True or false. Helper T cells regulate immunity by increasing the response of other immune cells. (p. 258) True
False
 76. When exposed to an antigen, lymphocytes and monocytes enlarge and secrete messenger molecules called ________. (p. 262) 1. antibodies
2. perforin
3. complement
4. IgG
5. cytokines
 77. Cytokines _________. (p. 262) 1. stimulate white blood cell formation
2. trigger inflammation
3. depress antibody production
4. make the body more susceptible to cancer
 78. ________ are antibodies of one specific type, all produced by plasma cells derived from the same B cell, and capable to identifying unique cells and infectious agents. (p. 263) 1. Lymphokines
2. Inflammatory reactions
3. Complement fixations
4. Antibody-mediated immunity
5. Monoclonal antibodies
 79. With the human ABO blood types in the below transfusions, which person would safely NOT receive blood with foreign antigens. (p. 264) 1. a type A person received type B blood
2. a type B person received type A blood
3. a type O person received type B blood
4. a type A person received type AB blood
5. a type A person received type O blood
 80. Why is hemolytic disease of the newborn (Rh-conflict) described as a likely problem only when the mother is Rh-negative and the father is Rh-positive? (p. 264) 1. a type Rh-negative father is not possible since it is sex-linked
2. the type Rh-negative is so rare that Rh-negative fathers are too uncommon
3. a type Rh-negative fetus in an Rh-positive mother does not expose the mother to any new antigens and therefore does not trigger any immune response
4. this was just the way the textbook gave the possible example and the reverse situation is just as much a problem
 81. When an immune system overreacts to an antigen or forms antibodies to substances that are usually NOT recognized as foreign, it results in _______. (p. 265) 1. immune deficiency disease
2. allergies
3. autoimmune disease
4. edema
5. hemolytic disease
 82. Myasthenia gravis, multiple sclerosis, lupus erythematosus, and rheumatoid arthritis are examples of ________. (p. 266) 1. immune deficiency diseases
2. normal inflammatory reactions
3. autoimmune diseases
4. failure of the B cells to defend the body
5. failure of the T cells to defend the body
 83. True or false. Thanks to new biotechnology, there are now cures for all autoimmune diseases. (p. 266) True
False
Return to Study Questions Chapter 13--Circulatory System

Chapter 13--Circulatory System

1. The three major types of blood vessels are _______. (p. 226) 1. cardiac, smooth, and striated
2. arteries, capillaries, and veins
3. afferent, efferent, and divergent
4. diastolic, systolic, and peristaltic
 2. The vessel that lies deepest in the body, with the thickest wall and carrying blood under greatest pressure is the _______.(pp. 226-227) 1. artery
2. vein
3. capillary
4. pulmonary
3. An artery can expand to accommodate the sudden increase in blood volume after each heartbeat. (p. 227) True
False
 4. Small arteries are called _______. (p. 227) 1. arteriettes
2. venules
3. capillaries
4. pulmonary arteries
5. arterioles
 5. Whether you blush or turn pale is determined by dilation or constriction of the _____. (p. 227) 1. valves in the veins
2. venules
3. capillaries
4. major arteries
5. arterioles
 6. An exchange of nutrients and waste takes place across ________ walls. (p. 227) 1. artery
2. vein
3. capillary
 7. True or False. All of the capillaries in the body are open to blood flow all of the time. (p. 227) True
False
 8. Valves allow blood to flow _______. (p. 227) 1. away from the heart and limit high blood pressure in tissues
2. to those capillary beds that need the blood at that moment
3. toward the heart in veins that lack significant blood pressure
4. to the lungs when the blood lacks enough oxygen
5. from the liver when the intestine lacks nutrient molecules and the liver must deliver glucose, stored as glycogen, to the tissues
9. Valves prevent the backward flow of blood when closed. (p. 227) True
False
 10. The heart lies within the pericardium, a membranous sac that secretes a small quantity of ________. (p. 228) 1. blood
2. lubricating liquid
3. glucose
 11. The heart contains chambers called the (p. 228) 1. atria and ventricles.
2. septa.
3. AV nodes.
4. lunar valves.
 12. The valves that lie between the atria and the ventricles are called the ________ valves. (p. 228) 1. atrioventricular
2. varicose
3. semilunar
4. lunar
13. The atrioventricular valves are supported by strong fibrous strings called ________. (p. 228) 1. AV nodes
2. chordae tendineae
3. cardiac fibers
4. myocardium
 14. The ________ valves resemble half moons. (p. 228) 1. atrioventricular
2. varicose
3. semilunar
4. lunar
15. When the heart beats, the familiar lub-dup sound occurs as the valves of the heart _____. (p. 230) 1. open
2. close
3. expand
4. contract
 16. A heart murmur is caused by ______. (p. 230) 1. smoking which weakens the action of the valve
2. ineffective valves allowing blood to leak back through the valve
3. stress from higher blood pressure
4. ineffective signals from the AV node
 17. Nodal tissue has ________ characteristics. (p. 230) 1. muscular and nervous
2. muscular and connective
3. connective and nervous
4. sensory and muscular
 18. The SA node is found in ________. (p. 230) 1. the base of the right atrium
2. the upper dorsal wall of the right atrium
3. each valve unit
4. the tip of the heart
 19. The SA node ________. (p. 230) 1. initiates the heartbeat
2. regulates the action of the heart valves
3. signals the ventricles to relax
4. signals the ventricles to contract
 20. The AV node ________. (p. 230) 1. initiates the heartbeat
2. regulates the action of the heart valves
3. signals the ventricles to relax
4. signals the ventricles to contract
 21. The SA node is called the ________. (p. 230) 1. master regulator
2. diastolic initiator
3. pacemaker
4. systolic suppressor
 22. Blood pressure is the pressure of blood against ________. (p. 233) 1. a stethoscope
2. the skin of the upper arm
3. the capillaries of the lung
4. the wall of a blood vessel
 23. The highest arterial pressure is called _______. (p. 233) 1. diastolic pressure
2. systolic pressure
3. hypotension
4. hypertension
 24. Diastolic pressure occurs while the heart ventricles are _______. (p. 233) 1. relaxing
2. contracting
3. motionless
 25. The greater the number of blood vessels dilated, the ________ . (p. 233) 1. higher the blood pressure
2. lower the blood pressure
3. faster the heartbeat
4. slower the heartbeat
 26. Blood pressure is lower in the arteries than in the arterioles. (p. 233) True
False
 27. There is a sharp drop in blood pressure when the arterioles reach the capillaries. (p. 233) True
False
 28. Blood pressure accounts for the movement of blood through the veins. (p. 233) True
False
 29. At the arterial end of a capillary, blood pressure is lower than the osmotic pressure of the blood. (p. 233) True
False
 30. The cardiovascular system consists of _______ circuits. (pp. 229-232) 1. pulmonary and systemic
2. arterial and venous
3. renal and hepatic
4. cardiac and cerebral
 31. The chamber of the heart that receives oxygen-rich blood from the pulmonary veins is the ______. (pp. 229, 234) 1. right atrium
2. left atrium
3. right ventricle
4. left ventricle
 32. The pulmonary trunk divides into the ________. (pp. 229-234) 1. pulmonary arteries
2. pulmonary veins
3. venae cavae
4. dorsal aorta
 33. The ________ and ________ serve as the major vessels for blood in the systemic circuit. (pp. 229-234) 1. aorta and pulmonary artery
2. pulmonary artery and venae cavae
3. venae cavae and femoral artery
4. aorta and venae cavae
 34. The inferior vena cava collects blood from the head, the chest, and the arms. (p. 234) True
False
 35. In the systemic circuit, like the pulmonary system, arteries contain deoxygenated blood. (pp. 234-235) True
False
 36. The __________ arteries are extremely important because they serve the heart muscle itself. (p. 235) 1. cardiac
2. coronary
3. pulmonary
4. pericardial
 37. The coronary arteries are the first branch off the ________. (p. 235) 1. pericardium
2. venae cava
3. pulmonary arteries
4. aorta
 38. Blood brings ______ to cells. (p. 237) 1. amino acids and glucose
2. carbon dioxide
3. wastes
4. ATP
 39. Blood removes wastes, such as _______ from the cell. (p. 241) 1. amino acids and glucose
2. carbon dioxide
3. oxygen
4. ATP
 40. Osmotic pressure is created by the presence of salts, and in particular by the plasma proteins. (p. 241) True
False
 41. The blood always has less water concentration compared to tissue fluid because of the presence of ______ whose size prevents passage across the capillary wall. (p. 241) 1. amino acids and glucose
2. carbon dioxide
3. albumin and other plasma proteins
4. white blood cells
42. ______________ in the blood help(s) guard the body against invasion by microbes. (p. 239) 1. Red blood cells
2. White blood cells
3. Platelets
4. Albumin
 43. The main mechanism to prevent loss of blood is ________. (p. 240) 1. the hemoglobin in red blood cells forms a network
2. white blood cells fuse together
3. platelets participate in clotting
4. albumin dries and hardens
 44. If blood is transferred to a test tube and is prevented from clotting, it separates into (p. 236) 1. formed elements and plasma.
2. granular leukocytes and agranular leukocytes.
3. red blood cells and white blood cells.
4. inorganic and organic substances.
 45. The plasma protein ________ transports bilirubin. (p. 237) 1. fibrinogen
2. prothrombin
3. hemoglobin
4. albumin
5. globulin
 46. The lipoproteins that transport cholesterol are a type of protein called _________ (p. 237) 1. fibrinogens
2. prothrombins
3. hemoglobins
4. albumins
5. globulins
 47. The plasma protein ________ is necessary to blood clotting. (p. 240) 1. fibrinogen
2. globulin
3. hemoglobin
4. albumin
 48. The hormone _________ stimulates the production of more red blood cells. (p. 238) 1. fibrinogen
2. erythropoietin
3. cortisone
4. leukoactin
 49. The stem cells __________. (p. 238) 1. initiate the rate of heartbeat
2. initiate the formation of blood clots
3. continuously divide and produce cells that differentiate into blood cells
4. spread in the bloodstream to all parts of the body to repair any damaged tissues
 50. Human red blood cells lack ________. (p. 238) 1. hemoglobin
2. iron
3. metabolism
4. a nucleus
 51. Red blood cells are destroyed chiefly in the ______. (p. 238) 1. liver and spleen
2. heart and lungs
3. bone marrow
4. kidney
 52. Forms of white blood cells include _________. (p. 239) 1. neutrophils
2. macrophages
3. monocytes
4. lymphocytes
5. All of the above are varieties of white blood cells.
 53. ________ are the most abundant of the white blood cells that function to phagocytize bacteria. (p. 239) 1. Neutrophils
2. Macrophages
3. Monocytes
4. Lymphocytes
 54. The largest of the white blood cells are the _________. (p. 239) 1. neutrophils
2. monocytes
3. macrophages
4.. lymphocytes
 55. Macrophages phagocytize microbes and stimulate other white blood cells to defend the body. (p. 239) True
False
 56. Neutrophils are unable to phagocytize and digest bacteria. (p. 239) True
False
 57. Causes of anemia include ___________. (p. 239) 1. insufficient number of red blood cells
2. not enough hemoglobin per red blood cell
3. a lack of iron in the diet
4. digestive tract is unable to absorb enough vitamin B12
5. All of the above can cause anemia.
 58. __________ is a form of cancer characterized by uncontrolled production of abnormal white blood cells. (p. 239) 1. Leukemia
2. Anemia
3. Artherosclerosis
4. Hypertension
5. Pulmonary embolism
 59. ___________ develop(s) when valves become weak and ineffective due to the backward pressure of blood. (p. 246) 1. Hemorrhaging
2. Varicose veins
3. Atherosclerosis
4. Hypertension
5. Pulmonary embolism
 60. ___________ occurs when a blood clot lodges in a lung blood vessel and can cause death. (p. 243) 1. Hemorrhaging
2. Varicose veins
3. Artherosclerosis
4. Stroke
5. Pulmonary embolism
Return to Study Questions Chapter 12--Digestion

Chapter 12--Digestion

1. Which of the following is NOT a function of the digestive system? (p. 202) 1. ingest food
2. digest food to small molecules
3. absorb nutrient molecules
4. eliminate non-digestible wastes
5. transport nutrients to other organs
 2. Why is digestion of food important? (p. 202) 1. to allow the liver to produce bile for digestion
2. to allow the pancreas to release digestive enzymes
3. to allow small molecules to cross cell membranes and be absorbed by the tract lining
4. to allow large molecules to cross cell membranes and be absorbed by the tract lining
5. to allow the meat that is eaten to nourish our body
 3. Strictly speaking, ____ refers to the breakdown of food by enzymatic action. (p. 202) 1. ingestion
2. digestion
3. excretion
4. metabolism
5. mastication
 4. Which of the following statements is NOT correct? (p. 202) 1. Digestion only takes place within the digestive tract.
2. The digestive tract begins with the mouth and ends with the anus.
3. Digestion of food in humans is a process that occurs inside of cells.
4. Digestive enzymes are secreted into the tract by glands located either in the tract or nearby.
5. Food is never found within accessory glands, only within the tract itself.
 5. True or False. Taste is largely due to stimulation of receptors in the nose. (p. 202) True
False
 6. Which of the following sequences does NOT trace the path of food through the digestive tract correctly? (p. 202) 1. mouth, esophagus, stomach
2. esophagus, stomach, duodenum
3. stomach, large intestine, small intestine
4. stomach, duodenum, large intestine
5. ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon
 7. ____ are chisel-shaped teeth used for biting. (p. 203) 1. Incisors
2. Canines
3. Premolars
4. Molars
5. Wisdom teeth
 8. Nerves and blood vessels are found within the ____ of a tooth. (p. 203) 1. enamel
2. dentin
3. pulp
4. crown
5. periodontal membrane
 9. Which of the following comparisons is NOT correct? (p. 203) 1. caries--tooth decay
2. gingivitis--inflammation of the gums
3. periodontitis--inflammation of the periodontal membrane
4. mumps--viral infection of the sublingual glands
5. heartburn--stomach acid in the esophagus
 10. Which of the following comparisons is NOT correct? (pp. 202, 204-209) 1. stomach--food storage and grinding
2. esophagus--food conduction
3. pharynx--side route to the lungs
4. small intestine--food processing
5. large intestine--water and salt processing
 11. Which of the following comparisons is NOT correct? (pp. 202, 204-209) 1. bolus--food mixed with saliva in the mouth
2. chyme--food mixed with gastric secretions leaving the stomach
3. gastric juice--secretions from intestinal glands
4. feces-nondigestible remains, bile, and bacteria
5. peristalsis--rhythmic contractions to move food
 12. True or False. Sphincters are muscles that encircle tubes and act as valves. (p. 205) True
False
 13. Which of the following hormones will cause the stomach to churn and increase secretory activity of the gastric glands? (p. 208) 1. GIP
2. gastrin
3. secretin
4. CCK
5. insulin
 14. Which of the following hormones is/are produced by cells of the duodenal wall? (p. 208) 1. gastrin alone
2. GIP alone
3. secretin alone
4. CCK alone
5. secretin and CCK
 15. True or False. If hydrochloric acid penetrates the mucus on the stomach wall, autodigestion of the wall begins, and an ulcer results. (p. 206) True
False
 16. Which of the following substances will cause the release of secretin from the duodenal wall? (p. 208) 1. carbohydrates
2. fats
3. partially digested protein
4. hydrochloric acid in chyme
5. sodium hydroxide in chyme
 17. Which sphincter allows chyme to enter the small intestine? (p. 206) 1. esophageal sphincter
2. pyloric sphincter
3. anal sphincter
4. lacteal
5. ileocecal valve
 18. Which organ will secrete sodium bicarbonate to neutralize the acidity of chyme in the small intestine? (p. 210) 1. pancreas
2. gallbladder
3. duodenum
4. esophagus
5. stomach
 19. Where are the brush-border enzymes found? (p. 207) 1. villi
2. microvilli
3. columnar epithelial cells
4. goblet cells
5. lacteal
 20. True or False. All end products of lipid, protein, and carbohydrate digestion enter the blood capillaries of the villi. (p. 207) True
False
 21. Which of the following statements is NOT correct? (p. 207) 1. Microvilli increase the surface area of the small intestine for absorption of nutrients.
2. Enzymes located on the brush-border finish the digestion of chyme.
3. Absorption is an active process in the small intestine.
4. Sugars and amino acids cross columnar epithelial cells to enter the lacteal.
5. Fat components rejoin in epithelial cells and are packaged as lipoprotein droplets, which enter the lacteals.
 22. Which of the following organs will contain villi? (p. 207) 1. esophagus
2. stomach
3. small intestine
4. liver
5. pancreas
 23. True or False. Most bacteria that live in the colon are facultative bacteria. (p. 208) True
False
 24. Which of the following organs is NOT part of the large intestine? (pp. 208-209) 1. cecum
2. colon
3. rectum
4. anal canal
5. duodenum
 25. Which of the following organs functions to absorb water, salts, and store nondigestible material? (p. 208) 1. esophagus
2. stomach
3. small intestine
4. large intestine
5. liver
 26. The ____ is the blind end of the ascending colon. (pp. 208-209) 1. cecum
2. vermiform appendix
3. transverse colon
4. anal canal
5. rectum
 27. Which of the following comparisons is NOT correct? (pp. 206, 209, 211) 1. constipation--hard and dry feces
2. ulcer--open sore in the wall of the stomach
3. appendicitis--inflammation of the cecum
4. cirrhosis--liver first becomes fatty and then replaced by fibrous scar tissue
5. jaundice--abnormally large amount of bilirubin in the skin and the whites of the eyes
 28. Which of the following statements is NOT correct? (pp. 208-209) 1. A high coliform bacterial count indicates a significant amount of feces has entered the water.
2. When the appendix bursts, a generalized infection of the serosa of the abdominal cavity can occur.
3. If colon cancer is detected while still confined to a polyp, the outcome is expected to be a complete cure.
4. Fiber in the diet promotes the development of colon cancer.
5. Bacteria in the colon break down nondigestible material and produce some vitamins that can be absorbed and used by our bodies.
 29. Which of the following statements is false? (p. 209) 1. Diarrhea can be caused by eating contaminated food, which causes the intestinal wall to become irritated and peristalsis to increase.
2. In nervous diarrhea, the nervous system stimulates the intestinal wall and diarrhea results.
3. Prolonged diarrhea can lead to constipation.
4. Constipation can be prevented by increasing water intake.
5. Constipation can be prevented by increasing the fiber content of our diet.
 30. True or False. In diarrhea, too little water has been absorbed by the large intestine; in constipation, too much water has been absorbed. (p. 209) True
False
 31. True or False. Milk of magnesia acts as a laxative because it makes the colon slippery. (p. 209) True
False
 32. Which of the following organs is considered an accessory organ of digestion? (p. 210) 1. liver
2. stomach
3. esophagus
4. ascending colon
5. rectum
 33. Which of the following organs has both an endocrine and an exocrine function? (p. 210) 1. pancreas
2. liver
3. stomach
4. duodenum
5. esophagus
 34. Which of the following organs produces bile? (p. 210) 1. gallbladder
2. liver
3. duodenum
4. stomach
5. large intestine
 35. Which component in bile helps to emulsify fat in the duodenum? (pp. 210-211) 1. bilirubin
2. biliverdin
3. bile salts
4. cholesterol
 36. Which blood vessel will transport nutrient molecules that have been absorbed by the small intestine to the liver? (p. 210) 1. hepatic artery
2. hepatic vein
3. hepatic portal artery
4. hepatic portal vein
5. inferior vena cava
 37. Which of the following organs functions to remove poisonous substances and works to keep the contents of blood constant? (pp. 210-211) 1. esophagus
2. stomach
3. duodenum
4. pancreas
5. liver
 38. True or False. Before amino acids can be converted to glucose molecules in the liver, deamination must take place. (p. 210) True
False
 39. Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver? (p. 210) 1. converts hemoglobin from red blood cells to bile pigments that are excreted along with bile salts in bile
2. detoxifies blood by removing poisonous substances
3. produces urea from the breakdown of amino acids
4. produces enzymes for digestion of food in the duodenum
5. makes plasma proteins from amino acids
 40. In which of the following diseases will liver tissue be replaced by inactive fibrous scar tissue? (p. 211) 1. hemolytic jaundice
2. obstructive jaundice
3. viral hepatitis
4. cirrhosis
5. lactose intolerance
 41. Red blood cells are broken down in abnormally large amounts in ____. (p. 211) 1. hemolytic jaundice
2. obstructive jaundice
3. viral hepatitis
4. cirrhosis
5. lactose intolerance
 42. Which of the following statements is NOT true about digestive enzymes? (pp. 212-213) 1. Digestive enzymes are hydrolytic enzymes.
2. Digestive enzymes are carbohydrates that have a particular shape that fits their substrate.
3. Digestive enzymes have an optimum pH which maintains their shape.
4. Digestive enzymes speed up a chemical reaction.
5. Each digestive enzyme speeds up a specific reaction.
 43. Which of the following organs will NOT produce any digestive enzymes? (pp. 212-213) 1. salivary glands
2. stomach
3. esophagus
4. duodenum
5. pancreas
 44. Which of the following enzymes will have an optimum pH that is acidic? (p. 213) 1. salivary amylase
2. pepsin
3. pancreatic amylase
4. trypsin
5. lipase
 45. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about fat digestion? (pp. 207, 212-213) 1. Bile salts are needed to emulsify fat into fat droplets.
2. Lipase digests the fat droplets into glycerol and fatty acid molecules while removing water molecules.
3. Glycerol and fatty acids enter the cells of the villi.
4. Glycerol and fatty acids, after entering the cells of the villi, rejoin and are packaged as lipoprotein droplets.
5. Lipoprotein droplets, which are formed in the cells of the villi, enter the lacteals.
 46. Which of the following enzymes is found on the mucosa of the intestinal villi? (p. 212) 1. amylase
2. trypsin
3. peptidase
4. lipase
5. pepsin
 47. Which of the following enzymes is released from the gastric glands to break down proteins into peptides? (p. 212) 1. lipase
2. pancreatic amylase
3. trypsin
4. pepsin
5. peptidase
 48. Which enzyme breaks down starch to maltose in the duodenum? (p. 213) 1. lipase
2. trypsin
3. maltase
4. salivary amylase
5. pancreatic amylase
 49. Which of the following relationships is NOT correct? (p. 212)
Enzyme /Produced by
1. pepsin / gastric glands
2. maltase / pancreas
3. salivary amylase / salivary glands
4. trypsin / pancreas
5. peptidases / villi of small intestine
 50. When starch is broken down by pancreatic amylase, ____ will be formed. (pp. 212-213) 1. glycerol + fatty acids
2. amino acids
3. peptides
4. maltose
5. glucose
 51. When peptides are broken down by peptidases, ____ will be formed. (p. 212) 1. amino acids
2. fatty acids and glycerol
3. glucose
4. proteins
5. maltose
 52. Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin in the stomach when exposed to ____. (p. 212) 1. trypsin
2. hydrochloric acid
3. peptides
4. peptidases
5. lipase
 53. Which of the following substances is NOT a product formed in the small intestine? (p. 212) 1. glucose
2. maltose
3. amino acids
4. peptides
5. proteins
 54. Which enzyme is missing in the small intestine if a person has lactose intolerance? (p. 212) 1. pancreatic amylase
2. dipeptidase
3. lipase
4. lactase
5. maltase
 55. When fats are broken down by lipase, ____ will be formed. (p. 212) 1. amino acids
2. fatty acids and glycerol
3. glucose
4. proteins
5. maltose
 56. Which of the following comparisons is NOT correct? (p. 212) 1. fats -- lipase
2. starch -- salivary amylase
3. maltose -- lactase
4. protein -- trypsin
5. peptides -- dipeptidases
 57. Which of the following enzymes would NOT be used to break down spaghetti into its end products for absorption? (pp. 212-213) 1. salivary amylase
2. pancreatic amylase
3. maltase
4. lipase
 58. Five test tubes, listed below, were incubated at body temperature for one hour. Which of the following test tubes would have the appropriate environmental conditions for digestion to occur? (p. 213) 1. H2O + a small sliver of egg white (protein)
2. Pepsin + H2O + a small sliver of egg white
3. HCl + H2O + a small sliver of egg white
4. Pepsin + HCl + H2O + a small sliver of egg white
5. Pepsin + NaOH + H2O + a small sliver of egg white
 59. Five test tubes, listed below, were incubated at body temperature for one hour. Which of the following test tubes would be considered the control? (p. 213) 1. H2O + a small sliver of egg white (protein)
2. Pepsin + H2O + a small sliver of egg white
3. HCl + H2O + a small sliver of egg white
4. Pepsin + HCl + H2O + a small sliver of egg white
5. Pepsin + NaOH + H2O + a small sliver of egg white
 60. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about protein nutrition? (p. 217) 1. Foods rich in protein include red meat, fish, poultry, dairy products, legumes, nuts, and cereals.
2. Ordinarily, amino acids are not used as an energy source but are incorporated into structural proteins.
3. Each vegetable or grain alone is an incomplete protein source.
4. Because amino acids are not stored in the body, a daily supply is needed.
5. We should derive all of our dietary protein from meat.
 61. The quickest, most readily available source of energy for the body is ____. (p. 215) 1. protein
2. carbohydrate
3. lipid
4. vitamins
5. minerals
 62. Which of the following is NOT considered to contain simple carbohydrates? (p. 215) 1. regular (non-diet) soft drinks
2. ice cream
3. candy
4. bread
 63. Some dieticians label ____ as "empty calories." (p. 215) 1. simple carbohydrates
2. complex carbohydrates
3. fats
4. essential amino acids
5. proteins
 64. Which of the following types of food may reduce the risk of colon cancer? (p. 215) 1. simple carbohydrates
2. polyunsaturated fats
3. fiber
4. cholesterol
5. protein
 65. Which of the following provides the greatest number of calories per gram? (pp. 215, 218) 1. carbohydrate
2. protein
3. fat
4. fiber
5. vitamins
 66. A calorie is the amount of heat required to raise ____. (p. 216) 1. one gram of water one degree C
2. one gram of water 10 degrees C
3. 10 grams of water one degree C
4. 1,000 grams of water one degree C
5. one gram of oil one degree C
 67. Which of the following statements is NOT correct? (p. 218) 1. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) carries cholesterol from cells to the liver.
2. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) protects against the development of clogged arteries.
3. A diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol decreases the blood cholesterol level in some individuals.
4. White fish, poultry, and shellfish are recommended protein sources to lower blood cholesterol levels; cheese, egg yolks, and liver are not.
5. Soluble fiber is believed to combine with cholesterol in the digestive tract and carry it out of the body.
 68. ____ are organic compounds (other than carbohydrate, fat, and protein) that the body is unable to produce but uses for metabolic purposes. (p. 218) 1. High-density lipoproteins
2. Low-density lipoproteins
3. Minerals
4. Vitamins
5. Soluble fibers
 69. Which vitamin is a part of the coenzyme NAD? (p. 219) 1. vitamin D
2. riboflavin
3. niacin
4. vitamin K
5. vitamin A
 70. Citrus fruits and other fresh fruits and vegetables are natural sources of ____. (p. 219) 1. vitamin A
2. vitamin C
3. vitamin D
4. vitamin B
 71. Sunshine and irradiated milk are primary sources of ____. (p. 219) 1. vitamin A
2. vitamin C
3. vitamin D
4. vitamin B
 72. Too much of ____ can cause kidney stones. (p. 219) 1. vitamin C
2. vitamin A
3. vitamin B
4. vitamin D
5. niacin
 73. Vitamin D deficiency can lead to ____. (p. 219) 1. scurvy
2. fissures of lips
3. dermatitis
4. rickets (decalcification and weakening of bone)
 74. Vitamin C deficiency can lead to ____. (p. 219) 1. scurvy
2. fissures of lips
3. dermatitis
4. rickets
75. Which of the following is NOT considered a macromineral? (p. 220) 1. sodium
2. magnesium
3. potassium
4. calcium
5. iron
 76. Which of the following macrominerals is needed for the construction of bones and teeth and for nerve conduction and muscle contraction. (p. 220) 1. sodium
2. magnesium
3. potassium
4. calcium
5. chlorine
 77. Which of the following statements is NOT correct in regards to calcium and bone disease? (p. 221) 1. Osteoporosis affects more older women than men.
2. In osteoporosis, the bones break easily because they lack sufficient calcium.
3. Calcium supplements cannot prevent osteoporosis.
4. In older individuals, osteoblasts are more active than osteoclasts.
5. Women can guard against osteoporosis by forming strong, dense bones when they are young.
 78. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about dieting? (pp. 221-222) 1. Weight loss occurs if the caloric intake is reduced while the same level of activity is maintained.
2. The best way to lose weight is to modify behavior and to lose the weight rapidly.
3. Physical activity firms up the body, puts you in the mood to keep the weight off, and burns calories.
4. The set-point hypothesis helps to explain why people tend to quickly regain any weight that has been lost through dieting.
5. In order to keep unwanted pounds off, a long-term program should include regular exercise and a balanced diet that avoids fatty foods
 79. Which of the following disorders is characterized by an individual that is extremely thin but still claims to "feel fat"? (p. 222) 1. obesity
2. bulimia
3. anorexia nervosa
4. rickets
5. pellagra
 80. Which of the following disorders is characterized by an individual who has the habit of eating to excess and then purging by vomiting? (p. 222) 1. obesity
2. bulimia
3. anorexia nervosa
4. rickets
5. pellagra
 81. True or False. High-density lipoproteins protect you more from clogged arteries than low-density lipoproteins. (p. 218) True
False
 82. True or False. High sodium intake has been linked to hypotension in some people. (p. 221) True
False
 83. True or False. Obesity is defined as a body weight of more than 20% above the ideal weight. (p. 221) True
False
 84. True or False. A nutrient is a substance in food that is used by the body for the maintenance of health. (pp. 214-221) True
False
 85. True or False. A U.S.D.A.-recomended American diet emphasizes the importance of including grains in the diet and the desirability of eating fats, oils, and sweets sparingly. (p. 214) True
False
 86. True or False. Essential amino acids are those that are required in the diet because the body is unable to produce them. (p. 217) True
False
 87. True or False. It is necessary to maintain a constant level of glucose in the blood because brain cells cannot metabolize other energy sources. (p. 210) True
False
 88. True or False. Most of the calories in the diet come from carbohydrates. (p. 215) True
False
 89. True or False. Fats should be avoided in the diet. (p. 218) True
False
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